The correlation coefficient is a number that indicates the direction
and closeness of points of a line of best of fit.
So it tells us two things.
It tells us the direction of the line of best fit
and it tells us the closeness of the points.
Usually, anything between -0.9 and -0.6 has a moderate negative correlation. If you look at this on a graph, you will notice that the points definitely resemble a line so we say it's moderate.
It will be a negative correlation because the slope is negative.
Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
First, suppose that nothing has changed, and possibility p is still 0.56. It's our null hypothesis. Now, we've got Bernoulli distribution, but 30 is big enough to consider Gaussian distribution instead.
It has mean μ= np = 30×0.56=16.8
standard deviation s = √npq
sqrt(30×0.56×(1-0.56)) = 2.71
So 21 is (21-16.8)/2.71 = 1.5494 standard deviations above the mean. So the level increased with a ˜ 0.005 level of significance, and there is sufficient evidence.
Since this is in the Mathematics subject my best answer would be Rational.
I think the answer is 30x+330>50x
Step-by-step explanation:
for the option A it was slightly changed,
cause the $30 was deposited by <em><u>helen</u></em> not <em><u>Vince.</u></em>
<em><u>so </u></em><em><u>check </u></em><em><u>that </u></em><em><u>well</u></em>
B. The y-intercept is 0 so it can't be C or D and the slope is 5/1. How I remember this is rise/run. Hope this helps!
