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3 years ago

12

I lost my debit card on my house but it’s the temporary and my real card is late so i need to call my bank but it ask for my car

d number what can I do

1 answer:

shepuryov [24]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Put your email!

Explanation:

Me answering a week ago:

You might be interested in

If a company wanted to finance the purchase of equipment without diluting shareholders equity, which of the following operation

Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

Issuing convertible bonds

Explanation:

Convertible bonds are corporate bonds that can be exchanged for common stock in the issuing company. Companies issue convertible bonds to lower the coupon rate on debt and to delay dilution. A bond's conversion ratio determines how many shares an investor will get for it.

5 0

2 years ago

Which type of account typically has low liquidity? AMoney Market Account BCertificate of Deposit (CD) CChecking Account DSavings

natta225 [31]

Likely B. Liquidity is basically the measurement of how quickly a given investment can be turned into cash. If you can sell it or take money from it quickly, it is liquid. Any one of the others (A, C or D) can be withdrawn from in a short time, and thus are very liquid. CDs, however, are set to a specified amount of time. You deposit money for, say, 5 years and then are allowed to withdraw it, not before. Thus, it is not liquid.

8 0

3 years ago

A car was purchased for $4500 down and payments of $375 at the end of each month for 5 years. Interest is 9.72% compounded month

agasfer [191]

Answer:

$21,080.2

Explanation:

The price of the car will be the down-payment plus the future value of 375 paid each month for 5 years compounded monthly at 9.72%.

The formula for calculating future value is

PV = P × 1 − (1+r)−n

r

PV is $350

r is 9.72 % or 0.0972 % per year or 0.0081

t is five year or 60 months

FV = 350 x (1-(1+0.0081)-60

0.0081

Fv =350 x 1-0.61628715419

0.0081

FV =350 x( 0.38371284581/0.00810

FV =350 x 47.371956

FV =16,580.20

The value of the car = $4500 + 16,580.20

=$21,080.2

7 0

3 years ago

Initially, suppose Bellissima uses 1 million hours of labor per week to produce corn and 3 million hours per week to produce jea

stiv31 [10]

Answer:

Bellisima's opportunity cost to produce 1 bushel of corn = 2 pairs of jeans

Explanation:

Bellisima uses 1 million hours of labor to produce corn and 3 million hours of labor to produce jeans. Produces 8 million bushels of corn and 48 million pairs of jeans.

Production of corn per million hours of labor = 8 / 1 = 8 bushels of corn
Production of jeans per million hours of labor = 48 / 3 = 16 pairs of jeans

Felicidad uses 3 million hours of labor to produce corn and 1 million hours of labor to produce jeans. Produces 15 million bushels of corn and 20 million pairs of jeans.

Production of corn per million hours of labor = 15 / 3 = 5 bushels of corn
Production of jeans per million hours of labor = 20 / 1 = 20 pairs of jeans

The opportunity cost refers to the extra costs or benefits lost form choosing one activity or investment over another alternative.

Bellisima's opportunity cost to produce 1 bushel of corn = 16 pairs of jeans / 8 bushels of corn = 2 pairs of jean per bushel of corn.
Bellisima's opportunity cost to produce 1 pair of jeans = 8 bushels of corn / 16 pairs of jeans = 0.5 bushels of corn per pair of jean.

Felicidad's opportunity cost to produce 1 bushel of corn = 20 pairs of jeans / 5 bushels of corn = 4 pairs of jean per bushel of corn.
Felicidad's opportunity cost to produce 1 pair of jeans = 5 bushels of corn / 20 pairs of jeans = 0.25 bushels of corn per pair of jean.

5 0

3 years ago

On December 31, 2020, Marin Company borrowed $67,653 from Paris Bank, signing a 5-year, $114,000 zero-interest-bearing note. The

igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

Journal Entries

December 31, 2020

Dr. Note Receivables $114,000

Cr. Discount on bond $46,347

Cr. Cash $67,653

December 31, 2020

Dr. Impairment loss $20,839

Cr. Allowance for Impairment $20,839

Explanation:

Calculate the discount on the bond as follow

Discount on the bond = Face value of Note - Borrowed Amount = $114,000 - $67,653 = $46,347

On December 31, 2020 calculate the present value of face value of note and recoverable value

Present value of Note = Face value x Discount factor at 11% for 3 years = $114,000 x 1/( 1 + 11%)^3 = $83,355.82

Present value of recoverable value of note = Recoverable value of note x Discount factor at 11% for 3 years = $85,500 x 1/( 1 + 11%)^3 = $62,516.86

Now calculate the impairment loss as follow

Impairment loss = Present value of Note - Present value of recoverable value of note = $83,355.82 - $62,516.86 = $20,838.96 = $20,839

8 0

3 years ago