Answer:
See attached file
Explanation:
To obtain sales, the quantity sold is multiplied by the sale price in each of the regions.
Variable costs are multiplied by each of the quantities
Fixed costs are distributed according to what the company determined
From the difference between sales and variable costs we get the Contribution Margin. If the fixed costs are subtracted, the Segment Margin of each sector is obtained. Subtracting fixed costs that cannot be distributed, gives the Net Income.
The Fixed manufacturing overhead $ 800,000 was distributed between 40.000 units (produced units) not 35.000 (sold units)
The correct answer is C.
For the equations to be balanced, the coefficients must make the number of atoms of the reactants and products the same across the equation. The other answer options leave the reactants having too many atoms and the product lacking. So the only properly balanced option is answer choice C.
So the completed balanced equation is:
4I2 + 9O2 -> 2I4O9
I hope this helps! :)
Answer:
A. Selection of the appropriate causal variable Y is important
Explanation:
We have this function, Y = f(X).
From this function we can see that Y is dependent on X. That is, it is a function of X. Y is not a causal variable. A causal variable is a variable that is able to influence the variable of interest. From this question Y is the variable of interest. It is the dependent variable. The independent variable is X and it is the causal variable.
Therefore the incorrect one is Selection of the appropriate causal variable Y is important
Answer:
a. 1,500
Explanation:
The formula to compute the break even point for earning target profit is shown below:
= (Fixed cost + target profit) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)
where,
Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable expense per unit
So, the break even point would be
= ($100,000 + $20,000) ÷ ($100 - $20)
= $120,000 ÷ $80
= 1,500 rooms
Answer:
$923.98 and $1,466.58
Explanation:
The computation of the present value is shown below:
Year Cash flows Discount rate 8% PV of cash inflows
1 $100 0.9259259259 $92.59
2 $100 0.8573388203 $85.73
3 $100 0.793832241 $79.38
4 $200 0.7350298528 $147.01
5 $300 0.680583197 $204.17
6 $500 0.6301696269 $315.08
Present value $923.98
Now the
Future value = Present value × (1 + rate)^number of years
where,
Present value = $923.98
Rate = 8%
Number of years = 6 years
So, the future value
= $923.98 × (1 + 8%)^6
= $1,466.58