Answer: Company Pays $1640
Carol Bryd pays $410
Explanation:
The total bill is $2300 and the deductible needs to be taken out.
$2300-$250
=$2050
Company Payment.
Company Pays 80% which translates to 0.8
0.8*2050
= $1640 is the company Payment.
Carol then pays the difference which is
$2050 - $1640
= $410
Carol pays $410
Answer:
(i) Base year prices
(ii) between two consecutive years
Explanation:
formula for GDP deflator is (real GDP)/(nominal GDP) x 100 which is the numerator real GDP where prices are valued at the current year adjusted to inflation or deflation and then the denominator where prices are valued at a base year where prices are valued at a nominal year which are not adjusted to any inflation or deflation.
The CPI ( consumer price index) is calculated by determining the rise or fall in price of a good or goods in two consecutive periods which in turn gives us the increase or decrease in price percentage.
Answer:
The multiple choices are as follows:
18.6%
14.0%
22.8%
25.0%
The second option is the correct answer,14%
Explanation:
The capital asset pricing asset model formula for computing a firm's cost of equity according to Miller and Modgiliani is given below:
Ke=Rf+Beta*(Mr-Rf)
Rf is the risk free of 2% which is the return expected from zero risk investment such as government treasury bills.
Beta is how risky an investment in a company is compared to similar businesses operating in similar business sector of the company given as 2.0
Mr is the expected return on market portfolio which 8%
Ke=2%+2*(8%-2%)
Ke=2%+2*(6%)
Ke=2%+12%=14%
It seems that you have missed the necessary options to answer this question, but anyway, here is the answer. <span>A net worth statement, insurance plan, and a budget are all part of a SAVING AND INVESTING PLAN. Hope this is the answer that you are looking for. </span>
Answer:
In order to find the present value of the bond we have to calculate the present value of investment A and subtract is from 1529. We can find the present value of A by discounting all its cash flows.
As the first cash flow is received today and the last will be received 3 years form now there will be a total of 4 cash flows
1) 218.19 (Will not be discounted as we are receiving it today in the present)
2) 218.19/1.0987 (Discount by 1 year as cash will be received in 1 year)
3) 218.19/1.0987^2 (Discount by 2 years as cash will be received in 2 years)
4) 218.19/ 1.0987^3 (Discount by 3 years as cash will be received in 3 years)
= 218.19 + 198.58 + 180.74+ 164.51 = 762.02
PV of Bond = 1529-762.09= 766.91
Semi annual coupons mean 2 payments a year. Bond B matures in 23 years which means a total of 46 payments (23*2). N=46. A coupon rate of 6.4 percent means that the bond pays $64 (0.064*1000) each year. $64 divided by 2 is 32 which is the amount of each semi annual payment Arjen receives. Pv= 766.91 FV = 1000
In a financial calculator put
PV= -766.91
N= 46
FV=1000
PMT= 32
and compute I
I is 4.38 and we will multiply it by 2 because the payments are semi annual. So we will get an I of 8.76
YTM= 0.0876
Explanation:
