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Radda [10]
2 years ago
14

Dividends in arrears are dividends on A. cumulative preferred stock that have been declared but have not been paid. B. non-cumul

ative preferred stock that have not been declared for a given period of time. C. cumulative preferred stock that have not been declared for a given period of time. D. common dividends that have been declared but have not yet been paid.
Business
1 answer:
Romashka [77]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": cumulative preferred stock that have been declared but have not been paid.

Explanation:

Dividends in arrears are dividends that have not been paid in a period on cumulative preferred stock. A company does not necessarily have to pay dividends to its shareholders but the payment becomes cumulative. Under this situation, it is said that the organization has failed to generate enough cash during the year. Besides, there must be a dividend declaration for the dividends in arrears to be liable recognized.

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Mitski supervises the returns desk in a department store. Mitski has set a goal for the rest of the year of finishing her daily
dem82 [27]
The answer is a problem based off the question
7 0
2 years ago
operation, 2,300 units were produced and 1,800 units were sold. Actual fixed costs are the same as the amount budgeted for the m
kykrilka [37]

Answer:

$124,200

Explanation:

Contribution margin is net of sales value and variable cost. This value is available to cover the fixed cost of the business and profit after adjusting fixed cost.

As per given data

Price = $98

Numbers of units sold = 1,800

Total Sales = $98 x 1,800 = $176,400

Variable cost = $23 x 1,800 units = $41,400

Variable marketing cost = $6 x 1,800 = $10,800

Total Variable cost = $41,400 + $10,800 = $52,200

Contribution Margin = Total Sales - Total Variable cost

Contribution Margin = $176,400 - $52,200

Contribution Margin = $124,200

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Paulson Company issues 6%, four-year bonds, on January 1 of this year, with a par value of $200,000 and semiannual interest paym
tatyana61 [14]

Answer: Incomplete question.

the complete queston is

Use the above straight-line bond amortization table and prepare journal entries for the following.

(a) The issuance of bonds on December 31, 2020.

b) The first interest payment on June 30, 2021.

(c) The second interest payment on December 31, 2021.

find answer in explanation column.

Explanation:

Semiannual Period-End Unamortized Discount Carrying Value

(0) January 1,  issuance            $13,466               $ 186,534

(1) June 30, first payment          11,782                188,218

(2) December 31, second payment 10,098             189,902

1. to record issue of bonds payable

Date  Account                         Debit             Credit

Dec 31,2020 Cash(carrying value) $ 186,534  

Discount on bonds payable              $13,466    

Bonds payable                                             $200,000

2. To record first interest payment

Date        Account                         Debit             Credit

june 30, 2021 Interest expense     $7,684

discount on bonds payable                               $1, 684

Cash                                                                $6,000

Calculation =

Cash paid towards interest every semi annual period = $200,000 X 6% X1/2 =$6,000.

interest expense = cash paid + discount on bonds payable written off.

                           = $6000 + $1, 684  = $7,684

discount on bonds payable = unamortised discount on 31 dec - unamortised discount on 30th june) ($13,466 -11,782 ==$1,684)  

3.To record second interest payment on december 31,2021.

 Date        Account                         Debit             Credit

Dec. 31 ,2021 Interest expense         $7,684  

 discount on bonds payable                                $1.684

                          Cash                                          $6,000

Calculation

discount on bonds payable = unamortised discount on 30th june - unamortised discount on 31st december 2021 =11,782-10,098 = $1.684

8 0
3 years ago
You have been given the following return information for a mutual fund, the market index, and the risk-free rate. You also know
babymother [125]

Answer:

Sharpe ratio = 0.20

Treynor ratio = –0.005

Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for the calculations of average rate of returns, standard deviations and beta used in the calculation below.

a. Calculation of Sharpe ratio

Sharpe ratio refers to a  investment measurement that employed to measure the an investment actual that has been adjusted for the risk associated with the investment.

Sharpe ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Sharpe ratio = (Average fund rate - Average Risk Free rate) / Standard deviation of fund rate = (5.46% - 2.40%) / 15.05% = 0.20

a. Calculation of Treynor ratio

Treynor ratio refers to investment measurement that is calculated to show the risk of certain investments after the volatility of the market has been taking into consideration.

Treynor ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Treynor ratio = (Average market return rate - Average Risk Free rate) / Beta = (1.96% - 2.40%) / 87.53% = –0.005

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
Cameron Manufacturing Co.'s static budget at 5,000 units of production includes $40,000 for direct labor and $5,000 for variable
Xelga [282]

Answer:

C) variable costs of $72,000 and $25,000 of fixed costs

Explanation:

To determine the flexible budget we must first calculate the variable costs of producing 8,000 units:

direct labor per unit = $40,000 / 5,000 units = $8 per unit

electric power per unit = $5,000 / 5,000 units = $1 per unit

total variable cost per unit = $8 + $1 = $9

Total variable costs for 8,000 units = 8,000 units x $9 per unit = $72,000

Total fixed costs = $25,000

4 0
3 years ago
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