Answer:
b. burnout
Explanation:
-Depression is an illness that makes people feel sad and without interest in performing activities that they used to do.
-Burnout is when a person is really tired because of a lot of stress and the person feels exhausted, overwhelmed, unmotivated and with a negative attitude.
-Insomnia is when a person has a problem to fall sleep and people feel that they are not able to rest.
-Occupational disease is an illness that is caused by the conditions in your job.
According to this, the answer is that such symptoms are most likely an indication that the subordinate is experiencing burnout because it appears when a person has a lot of stress which results in being in a bad mood, unmotivated and the person neglects the job.
Answer: Debit Bad debt expense $11,264, Credit Allowance for bad debt $11,264; Debit Allowance for bad debt $9,650, Credit Accounts receivable $9,650.
Explanation: Percentage of credit sales method means bad debt expense expressed as a percentage of sales.
The estimated bad debts rate is 2.2%, which translates to 2.2% of $512,000 (credit sales) = $11,264. The firm has to record this, being the estimated bad debts rate, as Debit to bad debt expense and Credit to allowance for bad debt. However, accounts receivable that was deemed uncollectible is $9,650. This amount would be taken out from the buffer in allowance account by debiting allowance for bad debt and crediting accounts receivable.
Solution :
We calculate the advances form the customer to be reported as the current liability as on Dec. 31, 2009 in the balance sheet as follows :
<u> Particulars </u> <u> Amount ($)</u>
Customer advances the balance Dec 31, 2008 110
Add : advances that is received with 2009 orders is 195
Less : advances applicable to the orders in 2009 -180
Less : advances from orders that are canceled in 2009 <u> -45 </u>
Advances from the customers liability Dec. 31, 2009 80
Therefore, the advance from the customer to be reported in the balance sheet as the current liability is $80.
Answer:
$100
Explanation:
Alto's share value = (2,400 × $24) = $57,600
Alto's total value = Share value + Incremental value of acquisition = $57,600 + $5,500 = $63,100
Net present value (NPV) = Alto's total value - Cost of acquisition = $63,100 - $63,000 = $100
Therefore, the net present value of acquiring Alto to Solo is $100.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": the ease with which an asset is converted to the medium of exchange.
Explanation:
The liquidity of an asset reflects the ease with which it can be transformed from investment to cash. Liquid assets are those that can be transformed easily to cash and see little or no difference in the value of the assets when transformed. Illiquid assets are more difficult to convert and can result in a major decrease in value once converted.
