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Ghella [55]
2 years ago
6

If (1, 1) is a point of f(x), then ( -,- ) is the corresponding point of g(x).

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ray Of Light [21]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Sry bro i want this answer too

Step-by-step explanation:

maxonik [38]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(2,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

im too lazy to write the stuff out

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What would this equal too look at the screen shot
jekas [21]

Given:

The figure of two parallel lines MP and QS.

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m\angle KNM =146^\circ

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