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3 years ago

Is (-3,-9) a solution of the equation y = 3x ? O YES O NO O NOT A SOLUTION

Mathematics

1 answer:

melomori [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Yes, (-3, -9) is a solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 3x (-3,-9)

-9 = 3(-3)

-9 = -9

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Find $\int \dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^4}}$ Please, help

ki77a [65]

If you're using the app, try seeing this answer through your browser: brainly.com/question/2867785

_______________

Evaluate the indefinite integral:

$\mathsf{\displaystyle\int\! \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^4}}\,dx}\\\\\\ \mathsf{=\displaystyle\int\! \frac{1}{2}\cdot 2\cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-(x^2)^2}}\,dx}\\\\\\ \mathsf{=\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\int\! \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-(x^2)^2}}\cdot 2x\,dx\qquad\quad(i)}$

Make a trigonometric substitution:

$\begin{array}{lcl}
\mathsf{x^2=sin\,t}&\quad\Rightarrow\quad&\mathsf{2x\,dx=cos\,t\,dt}\\\\
&&\mathsf{t=arcsin(x^2)\,,\qquad 0\ \textless \ x\ \textless \ \frac{\pi}{2}}\end{array}$

so the integral (i) becomes

$\mathsf{=\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\int\!\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-sin^2\,t}}\cdot cos\,t\,dt\qquad\quad (but~1-sin^2\,t=cos^2\,t)}\\\\\\
\mathsf{=\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\int\!\frac{1}{\sqrt{cos^2\,t}}\cdot cos\,t\,dt}$

$\mathsf{=\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\int\!\frac{1}{cos\,t}\cdot cos\,t\,dt}\\\\\\
\mathsf{=\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\int\!\f dt}\\\\\\
\mathsf{=\displaystyle\frac{1}{2}\,t+C}$

Now, substitute back for t = arcsin(x²), and you finally get the result:

$\mathsf{\displaystyle\int\! \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-(x^2)^2}}\,dx=\frac{1}{2}\,arcsin(x^2)+C}$ ✔

________

You could also make

x² = cos t

and you would get this expression for the integral:

$\mathsf{\displaystyle\int\! \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-(x^2)^2}}\,dx=-\,\frac{1}{2}\,arccos(x^2)+C_2}$ ✔

which is fine, because those two functions have the same derivative, as the difference between them is a constant:

$\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\,arcsin(x^2)-\left(-\dfrac{1}{2}\,arccos(x^2)\right)}\\\\\\
=\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\,arcsin(x^2)+\dfrac{1}{2}\,arccos(x^2)}\\\\\\
=\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot \left[\,arcsin(x^2)+arccos(x^2)\right]}\\\\\\
=\mathsf{\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot \dfrac{\pi}{2}}$

$\mathsf{=\dfrac{\pi}{4}}$ ✔

and that constant does not interfer in the differentiation process, because the derivative of a constant is zero.

I hope this helps. =)

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