First, distribute the minus sign across the second set. So you have:
x - y + 1 - x - y + 1
Now, we combine like terms:
x-x=0
-y-y=-2y
1+1=2
So we have -2y+2
Hope that helps.
The answer is 95.4525 percent because you would use an equation
n!/(r!(n-r)! x (P)^x * (1-P)^(n-x)
Plug in the number correspondingly
N= 10
R= 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 (You will have to do each individual, if you have a Ti-nspire calculator however there is a built program called binomialcdf.
P= .37
x = r
After plugging this is the achieved answer is 95.4525
(.0578 + .1529 + .2394 + .2461 + .1734 + .0849) x 100
additive may be a little off due to rounding.
Two equations with infinite solutions would look the exact same. Example:
y=mx+b
y=mx+b
Example 2
y=2x+5
y=2x+5
For an equation with no solution they would have the same slope but different y intercepts. An equation with same slope and same y intercepts would have infinite solutions.
Answer:
The slope is .075 and the y intercept is -.125
Step-by-step explanation:
8y = .2(3x -5)
Distribute the .2
8y = .6x - 1
Divide by 8
8y/8 = .6x/8 -1/8
y = .075x -.125
This is in slope intercept form y= mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept.
The slope is .075 and the y intercept is -.125
8 divide by 5
X=4-3 and that's the right answer
Thank you
