For the year ended December 31, 2018, the warranty-related entry would include a debit to warranty expense of $80,000.
If it's miles impracticable to determine the cumulative impact of applying a trade-in accounting principle, then the new accounting principle should be applied prospectively as of the earliest date practicable. in this situation, the disclosures discussed in FSP 30.4.
Cumulative effect equals the difference between the actual retained profits suggested at the beginning of the yr using the antique approach and the retained income that would have been reported at the start of the year if the brand-new technique had been utilized in earlier years.
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Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the direct labor efficiency variance is shown below;
= Standard Rate × (Standard Hours - Actual Hours)
= $22.50 × (4,760 Units × 2 hours per unit - 8,900)
= $13,950 Favourable
Hence, the direct labor efficiency variance is $13,950 favorable
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct amount could come
Answer:
The correct answer is Demand is inelastic, but not perfectly.
Explanation:
Inelastic demand is that demand that is not very sensitive to a change in price. In this way, before a variation in the price the quantity demanded reacts in a less than proportional way. For example, if the price increases by 10% and in response the quantity demanded is reduced by less than 10%, then the demand is said to be inelastic.
The elasticity of demand, also known as the elasticity-price of demand, is defined as the percentage change of the quantity demanded before a percentage change in the price.
Answer:
A. $54
B. 55.62
C. $70.46
Explanation:
The formula for calculating compound interest is
FV = P (1 + r ) ^n
FV = Future value
P = Present value
R = interest rate
N = number of years
A. $1,800 (1.03) = $1854
Interest rate = $1854 -$1,800 = $54
B. $1,800 (1.03)^2 = $1,909.62
Interest rate = $1,909.62 - $1854 = $55.62
C. $1,800 (1.03)^10 = $2,419.05
To service the interest rate, we have to determine the future value in year 9
$1,800 (1.03)^9 = $2,348.59
Interest rate = $2,419.05 - $2,348.59 = $70.46
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
future worth:
project A 11,615.26
project B 12,139.18
It should choose project B as their future value is greater
IRR of project A: 13.54%
We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay
It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.
Explanation:
Project A
We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.
Revenues future value
C 15,000
time 8
rate 0.12
FV $184,495.3970
Expenses future value
C 3,000
time 10
rate 0.12
FV $52,646.2052
Cost future value
Principal 40,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 124,233.93
Net future worth:
-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value
future worth 11,615.26
Project B
cost:
Principal 60,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 186,350.89
expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)
revenues
C 24,000
time 7
rate 0.12
FV $242,136.2815
TOTAL
242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18
Internal rate of return of project A
we write the time and cash flow for each period.
Time Cash flow
0 -40,000
1 -3,000
2 -3,000
3 12,000
4 12,000
5 12,000
6 12,000
7 12,000
8 12,000
9 12,000
10 16,000
IRR 13.54%
Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)
and we got the IRR of the project
