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Aleks [24]
3 years ago
6

Cutler Petroleum, Inc., is trying to evaluate a generation project with the following cash flows:Year Cash Flow0 –$ 39,800,000 1

63,800,000 2 – 12,800,000 This project has two IRR's, namely percent and percent, in order from smallest to largest. (Note: If you can only compute one IRR value, you should input that amount into both answer boxes in order to obtain some credit.)
Business
1 answer:
muminat3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The two IRRs are: - 76.49% and 36.79%

Explanation:

To simplify our "Hard work", let's denote the cash flow numbers in terms of '000 (To reduce the number of zeros).

IRR is that discount rate R, for which NPV = 0

NPV is the sum of discounted cash inflows and outflows. Therefore,

NPV ($'000) = - 39,800 + (63,800 / (1 + R) - [12,800 / (1 + R)2]

When NPV = 0 [If R is the IRR],

0 = - 39,800 + [(63,800 / (1 + R)] - [12,800 / (1 + R)2]

[12,800 / (1 + R)2] - [(63,800 / (1 + R)] + 39,800 = 0

To simplify further, let's put N = 1 + R. Also, let's divide both sides by 200 [Note: We're only doing arithmetical simplification to reduce the large numbers]]:

[64 / (N)2] - (319 / N) + 199 = 0

Multiplying all terms by (N2):

64 - 319N + 199 (N)2 = 0

that is,

199 (N)2 - 319N + 64 = 0

This is a quadratic equation with large coefficients. Solving quadratic equation is outside scope of this question (it belongs to Algebra), so I've used an Online Quadratic equation solver**, which returns following values of N:

N = 1.3679, and N = 0.2351

So:

1 + R = 1.3679, Or 1 + R = 0.2351

R = (1.3679 - 1) or R = (0.2351 - 1)

R = 0.3679 or R = - 0.7649

The two IRRs are: - 76.49% and 36.79%

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3 years ago
Concord Company uses the FIFO method to compute equivalent units. It has 4000 units in beginning work in process, 20% complete a
Andrej [43]

Answer:

67,840 units

Explanation:

The computation of the equivalent units for material by using the FIFO method is shown below:

<u>Particulars       Unit       Percentage completion   Equivalent units</u>

Opening

inventory       4,000 units     50%                          2,000 units

Completed

& transferred

(67,000

- 5,800)        61,200 units    100%                         61,200 units

Closing  

inventory      5,800 units      80%                         4,640 units

Total                                                                       67,840 units

8 0
3 years ago
Harwood Company uses a job-order costing system that applies overhead cost to jobs on the basis of machine-hours. The company's
Damm [24]

Answer:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base (machine hours)

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The company's predetermined overhead rate of $2.40 per machine-hour was based on a cost formula that estimates $192,000 of total manufacturing overhead for an estimated activity level of 80,000 machine-hours.

To allocated overhead costs to a specific job, you need to multiply the estimated rate for the number of machine-hours required for the job.

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base (machine hours)

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Answer:

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Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Terms of a lease agreement and related facts were:
Feliz [49]

Answer:

1) January 1, 2018, asset leased

Dr Lease receivable 550,000

    Cr Equipment 550,000

January 1, incremental costs associated with lease transaction

Dr Lease receivable 6,652

    Cr Cash 6,652

January 1, 2018, first lease payment collected

Dr Cash 200,000

    Cr Lease receivable 200,000

2) to calculate the effective rate we can use the present value of an annuity due formula

PV annuity due factor, 3 periods, ?% = present value of lease receivable / annual payment = $556,652 / $200,000 = 2.78326

Now we must use an annuity due table to determine a possible rate. In this case, the exact rate is 8%.

3) December 31, 2018, interest receivable on lease contract

Dr Interest receivable 28,532

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interest receivable = ($556,652 / $200,000) x 8% = $28,532

5 0
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