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Arlecino [84]
3 years ago
14

A country has elections every other year to elect representatives. The people running for office all belong to the same politica

l party. Would this type of government be considered more like a democracy or more like a dictatorship? A. It would be considered more like a dictatorship because elections are only held every other year. B. It would be considered more like a dictatorship because the choice of representatives is limited to one party. C. It would be considered more like a democracy because the people are given the opportunity to vote for their favorite candidate. D. It would be considered more like a democracy because political parties are allowed to exist.
Social Studies
1 answer:
Triss [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: C. . It would be considered more like a democracy because the people are given the opportunity to vote for their favorite candidate.

Explanation:

Even though the people running for office all belong to the same political party, this type of government would still be considered more like a democracy because the people are given the opportunity to vote for their favorite candidate.

Democracy is about allowing the people have a say in the government and also been able to choose whoever they want.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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21. The number of subordinates that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident is referred to as:
nlexa [21]

Answer:

(C) Manageable Span of Control

Explanation:

According to my research on managerial terminology, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this description is referring to the term known as Manageable Span of Control. The amount of people they  can manage may vary depending on the type of incident, nature of the task, hazards and safety factors, and distances between personnel and resources.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is unreliable.
12345 [234]

This is false that A test that gives comparable scores when it is administered to the same individual a few days apart is unreliable.

A test is unreliable if it produces similar results when it is given to the same person several days apart. A test's or another selection procedure's reliability refers to what it measures and how well it assesses it. If a measure's dependability is poor, it will be difficult for you to believe that the results accurately reflect the participant's performance and are not merely the result of methodological, psychological, or environmental factors.

Reliability is a qualitative judgment in this case, analogous to accuracy and stability, but unreliability is a quantitative one. I believe that the definition of measurement results in unreliability provided it needs to be revised because it does not accurately reveal the content.

To know more about unreliability refer to:  brainly.com/question/1245796

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Massachusetts Manufacturing has redesigned its promotional strategy. The company now utilizes a system that combines all the ele
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

Integrated marketing communication system

Explanation:

Integrated marketing communications (IMC) is a simple concept and process through which organizations accelerate returns by taking a customer-centric approach including communicationa and massages to aligning their marketing and promotional objectives with their business or institutional goals so that they work together in harmony.

Integrated Marketing is an approach to creating a unified and seamless experience for consumers to interact with the brand/enterprise; it attempts to meld all aspects of marketing communication such as advertising, sales promotion, public relations, directmarketing, and social media.

8 0
4 years ago
A society in which there are many crimes, such as thefts and murders, should not be called "lawless" That is an abuse of the mea
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer: A society that has laws has crimes

Explanation: analysing the passage, it can be concluded that

Lawless=> No laws => No crimes

A crime happens when a law is broken.

Many crimes = crimeful

It is the existence of crime that brings about the development of law. If there is no crime, then of what essence is the law. The law is meant to curb criminal activities. Although as humans, its logically impossible to say that a community or society is without crime as there is always a high likelihood of a Judas amongst good people.

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Countries at which level of economic development have a world-average standard of<br> living?
sveticcg [70]

Answer: Second World nations

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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