<span>The word “oligarchy” and the concepts which it symbolizes originated in ancient Greece. In its basic use, the word identified one of the general forms of government recognized by the Greeks: that in which political government is conducted by a few persons or families. It was also used more narrowly, by Aristotle for example, to refer to the debased form of aristocracy, that is, to government by the few or by a faction. The term “oligarchy” was also used to refer to the small group of persons who enjoyed a monopoly of political control in oligarchic governments; the term usually had the added sense that the oligarchy ruled in its own rather than in the public interest. For Aristotle, classification of governments rested on two independent variables: the number of persons who ruled and the purposes served by their rule. Oligarchy was present when a few persons ruled for their own satisfaction.</span>
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
It seems that there is no question here, just a statement.
What is your question? What do you want to know?
If this is a true or false question, the answer is "true."
It is true that the US has never experienced a period in which a single political party existed and there was little if any political conflict.
On the contrary, political parties have always existed in the history of the United States. First, it started with two political factions: Federalists with people like James Madison, Alexander Hamilton, and John Jay; and Antifederalists with people like Thomas Jefferson or Samuel Adams.
Throughout the history of the United States, there have always been different political parties, but the dominant political forces have always been Republicans and Democrats, creating a bipartisan political system.
Answer:
C. quadrupled
Explanation:
The oil crisis of 1973 which started in October of the same year was caused by an embargo placed by OAPEC who targeted countries they perceived were supporting Israel during the Yom Kippur War.
As a result of this embargo, price of oil quadrupled, from a price of $3 per barrel to almost $12 in 1974.
Because he was making a non-violent movement and was starving himself to death unless people cooperated with him which actually worked.
The reason why there is such a difference between civilian deaths in WWI and WWII was that civilians were deliberately targeted in WWII.
<h3>Why were there more civilian deaths in WWII?</h3>
In WWII, the combatants targeted civilians directly in some cases as opposed to WWI where civilian deaths were limited.
For instance, WWII saw the Nazis targeting specific populations such as Jews. The allies also targeted civilian areas during their bombing raids in order to pressure the Nazis to surrender.
Find out more on civilian deaths in WWII at brainly.com/question/10577518.
