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Effectus [21]
3 years ago
13

A map has a scale of 1 inch : 40 miles. Use the given map distance to find the actual distance.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ad libitum [116K]3 years ago
6 0
If it is 1/40 as the ratio then multiple the top by 12 and bottom by 12 to get 480 miles
Rus_ich [418]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

480 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

If one inch equals 40 miles, then 12 times that would be 4800 miles.

1 Inch          12 Inches

---------- =  ------------------

40 Miles     480 Miles.

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Please help!! Will give Brainlyest!
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

Hey so I think x = 8.4

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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Can someone help me with the question please
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

Purple line: 4

Red dashed line: 2

Blue line: 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

The purple line is the steepest line, therefore it has the biggest constant of proportionality or slope. Since 4 is the biggest number among the others, we attribute it to the purple line (the one with the point C on it).

Think of it this way:

y = ax+b \\

here b = 0 so y = ax

The greater a is, the greater y is. So for any value of x, y will be become bigger and bigger if we increase the value of a.

Take for example this one:

y = 2x \\

Take x=2\\ therefore y =4

Now take y = 4x and take x =2 therefore y = 8

When we increased this constant of proportionality, as you can see from 2 to 4, the value of y increase from 4 to 8.

Hope this is helpful. Think of it really carefully, and I'm sure you'll grasp the concept.

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ME!!!!
luda_lava [24]

Answer:

3.00

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Payout(X) : ___ 0 ___ 4 ___ 6 ____ 8 _____ 10

Probability (p(x) 0.5 _ 0.2 __0.15 __0.1 ___ 0.05

Expected value :E(X) = ΣX* p(x)

E(X) = (0*0.5) + (4*0.2) + (6*0.15) + (8*0.1) + (10*0.05)

E(X) = 3

Expected value = 3.00

8 0
3 years ago
8 1/5- 4 3/5= ? answer this question plz. help me plz :c
mina [271]

Answer:

3 3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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Use the value of the linear correlation coefficient r to find the coefficient of determination and the percentage of the total v
sergiy2304 [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that r = 0.952

We have coefficient of determination

r^2 =0.952^2\\=0.906304

=90.63%

This implies that nearly 91% of variation in change in dependent variable is due to the change in x.

The coefficient of determination is the square of the correlation (r) between predicted y scores and actual y scores; thus, it ranges from 0 to 1.

An R2 of 0 means that the dependent variable cannot be predicted from the independent variable.

An R2 of 1 means the dependent variable can be predicted without error from the independent variable.

5 0
3 years ago
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