Will choose brainliest! Please help! (This is Khan Academy)
1 answer:
Answer:
Option B. A = (5/6)^-⅛
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question given above, we obtained:
(5/6)ˣ = A¯⁸ˣ
We can obtain the value of A as follow:
(5/6)ˣ = A¯⁸ˣ
Cancel x from both side
5/6 = A¯⁸
Recall:
M¯ⁿ = 1/Mⁿ
A¯⁸ = 1/A⁸
Thus,
5/6 = 1/A⁸
Cross multiply
5 × A⁸ = 6
Divide both side by 5
A⁸ = 6/5
Take the 8th root of both sides
A = ⁸√(6/5)
Recall
ⁿ√M = M^1/n
Thus,
⁸√(6/5) = (6/5)^⅛
Therefore,
A = (6/5)^⅛
Recall:
(A/B)ⁿ = (B/A)¯ⁿ
(6/5)^⅛ = (5/6)^-⅛
Therefore,
A = (5/6)^-⅛
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Answer:
178 pages
Step-by-step explanation:
convert feet to inches
9 x 12 = 108
11 x 12 = 132
108 x 132 = 14256
8 x 10 = 80
14256/80 = 178 with a little left over
Answer: x=0.5, y=1
Step-by-step explanation:
-4x+3y=1
6x-y=2
6x-2=y
-4x+3(6x-2)=1
-4x+18x-6=1
-4x+18x=7
14x=7
x=0.5
6x-y=2
6(0.5)-y=2
3-y=2
y=1
x+5(x+1)=65
x+5x+5=65
6x=65-5=60
x=60/6=10
smaller number=10
Larger number=10+1=11
X= -6
Please mark brainliest