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Nostrana [21]
3 years ago
6

A bag of marbles contains 1 green, 5 red, and 2 blue. Find the probability of picking a red marble, putting it back in the

Mathematics
1 answer:
sleet_krkn [62]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Red = 25/32768

Blue = 4/64

Step-by-step explanation:

Green Marbles = 1

Red Marbles = 5

Blue Marbles = 2

Probability of picking a red marble = 5/8 x 5/8 x 5/8 x 5/8 x 5/8 = 25/32768

Probability of picking a blue marble = 2/8 x 2/8 = 4/64

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For your parent's 25th wedding anniversary, you want to restore and enlarge their
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

1/15

Step-by-step explanation:

Original length 3 in; New Length= 45

Original width 5 ;new width= 75

So 3/45

=5/75

=1/15

Hope it helps!

5 0
3 years ago
You flip a fair coin 4 times, and your friend flips the same coin 40 times. Which of these outcomes is most likely?
muminat
Your chances of getting the same side is 1/16
Your friends chance of getting the same side 1/2^40
Both of Ur chaces : 1/2^44
3 0
4 years ago
The sports club sold candles as a fundraiser to support the new team. The club earns a commission on its candle sales. If the cl
Anastasy [175]

Answer:

A $2000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the least amount of money the club has to make to get $600 then...

30%x=600

We can convert 30% to a fraction. Any percentage is that number percent over hundred:

\frac{30}{100}x=600

Simplify the fraction by dividing it by 10/10. Notice we can only do this since 10/10 is equivalent to 1, so in a sense we are dividing the fraction by 1:

\frac{3}{10}x=600

Multiply 10 to both sides

3x=6000

Divide both sides by 3

x=2000

The club would have to make at least $2000

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE I NEED HELP!! NO LINKS!!
SCORPION-xisa [38]

Answer:

m<N = 32°

m(NQ) = 106°

Step-by-step explanation:

Inscribed angle = ½ of the measure of the intercepted arc (inscribed angle theorem)

<N is an inscribed angle

It's intercepted arc = arc MP = 64°

Therefore,

m<N = ½(64°)

m<N = 32°

m<P = ½(m(NQ)) (inscribed angle theorem)

53° = ½(m(NQ))

Multiply both sides by 2

2*53° = m(NQ)

106° = m(NQ)

m(NQ) = 106°

5 0
3 years ago
A bike wheel is 26 inches in diameter. What is the bike wheel's diameter in millimeters (1 inch = 25.4 millimeters)?
Alex

Given that, a bike wheel is 26 inches in diameter.

We need to convert bike wheel's diameter in millimeters .

Since, 1 inch = 25.4 millimeters.

So, to convert 26 into mm we need to multiply 26 each sides of this identity to convert this into mm. Hence,

1*26 inch = 25.4 * 26 mm.

So, 26 inches = 660.4 mm.

So, the bike wheel's diameter is 660.4 millimeters.

Hope this helps you!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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