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aleksandr82 [10.1K]
3 years ago
7

Explain why 2(z – 1) = 4(z + 5) has one solution. Choose the best response below.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nitella [24]3 years ago
4 0

First to answer

Answer:

A. The coefficients of z are the same, but the constant terms are different.

Step By step Explanation:

2(z – 1) = 4(z + 5)

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

2(z−1)=4(z+5)

(2)(z)+(2)(−1)=(4)(z)+(4)(5)(Distribute)

2z+−2=4z+20

2z−2=4z+20

Step 2: Subtract 4z from both sides.

2z−2−4z=4z+20−4z

−2z−2=20

Step 3: Add 2 to both sides.

−2z−2+2=20+2

−2z=22

Step 4: Divide both sides by -2.

−2z/−2 = 22/−2

z=−11

The coefficients for z are the same, but the constants are different.

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