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Ksenya-84 [330]
4 years ago
12

A stack of 100 pennies is 6.1 A stack of a 100 dimes is 5.3 inches tall how much taller is a stack of 10 pennies than a stack of

ten dimes
Mathematics
2 answers:
givi [52]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The stack of 10 pennies is 0.08 inches taller than a stack of 10 dimes.

Step-by-step explanation:

A stack of 100 pennies is 6.1 inches tall and a stack of 100 dimes is 5.3 inches tall . From the initial statement we can conclude a stack of pennies is taller than same  number of stack of dimes.

The question asked us to find how much taller a stack of 10 pennies  than a stack of 10 dimes.

Firstly, the stack of 10 pennies height and the stack of 10 dimes height need to be calculated before knowing how much taller through the difference.

since stacked 100 pennies  is 6.1 inches

stacked 10 pennies = ?

cross multiply

height of stacked 10 pennies = (10 × 6.1)/100

height of stacked 10 pennies = 61/100

height of stacked 10 pennies = 0.61 inches

since stacked 100 dimes is 5.3 inches

stacked 10 dimes = ?

cross multiply

height of stacked 10 dimes = (10 × 5.3)/100

height of stacked 10 dimes = 53/100

height of stacked 10 dimes = 0.53 inches

The difference in height is 0.61 - 0.53 = 0.08  inches

Romashka [77]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

0.08

Step-by-step explanation:

Pennies:

10/6.1 = 0.61

Dimes:

10/5.3 = 0.53

_______________________

0.61-0.53 = 0.08

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Find the value of x when 6 - 3x = 5x - 10x + 8.<br> The value of x is
katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify

6 + -3x = 5x + -10x + 8

terms:

6 + -3x = 8 + 5x + -10x

Combining  like terms: 5x + -10x = -5x

6 + -3x = 8 + -5x

Solving

6 + -3x = 8 + -5x

Move all terms containing x to the left, all other terms to the right.  (Remember)

Add '5x' to each side of the equation.

6 + -3x + 5x = 8 + -5x + 5x

Combine the like terms -3x + 5x = 2x

6 + 2x = 8 + -5x + 5x

Combine the like terms again  -5x + 5x = 0

6 + 2x = 8 + 0

6 + 2x = 8

Then '-6' to each side of the equation.

6 + -6 + 2x = 8 + -6

Combine the like terms: 6 + -6 = 0

0 + 2x = 8 + -6

2x = 8 + -6

Combine the like terms: 8 + -6 = 2

2x = 2

Then divide each side by '2'.

x = 1

Simplifying

x = 1

7 0
4 years ago
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What is 1.38 as a fraction
slega [8]
<u>1.38</u> as a fraction is  <em>138/100</em> .

As a fraction, it can be reduced to lower terms.

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Can someone help me the 2nd problem I don’t understand it
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

So this means the bus B covered 390-120=270 miles when bus A has already reached 390 miles.

270 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

So is A is going faster than B so A will reach the destination first.

When will A reach it's destination?

Let's find out.

To solve this problem, the following will come in handy:

Speed=distance/time or time*Speed=distance or time=distance/speed .

time=distance/speed

T_A=\frac{390}{S_A}

T_A=\frac{390}{65}

T_A=6

So it will take bus A 6 hours to cover the distance of 390 miles.

How much time would have it taken bus B to reach that same distance?

T_B=\frac{390}{45}

T_B=8.\overline{6}

So it would have taken bus B 8.\overline{6} hours to cover a distance of 390 miles.

So the time difference is 8.\overline{6}-6=2.\overline{6} hours.

It will take 2.\overline{6} more hours than bus A for bus B to complete a distance of 390 miles.

So bus B traveled 2.\overline{6} \cdot 45=120 miles (used the time*speed=distance) after bus A got to it's destination.

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kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}&#10;

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

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P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

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P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}&#10;

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P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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First, we will tell you why it is useful to know 55.5 as a decimal.

Normally, to calculate 55.5 percent, you would multiply a number by 55.5 percent and then you would take the product of that and divide it by 100 to get the answer.

Instead, you can simply multiply a number by 55.5 as a decimal to get the answer.

55.5 percent means 55.5 per hundred. Therefore, to get 55.5 as a decimal, all you have to do is divide 55.5 by 100 like so:

55.5 ÷ 100 = 0.555

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