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3 years ago

Given a set of data sorted from smallest to largest, define the first, second, and third quartiles.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nikolay [14]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given a set of data sorted from smallest to largest, i.e. arranged in ascending order we are to find out the median, I and III quartiles

We know that the median is the middle entry of data arranged in ascending order

Q1 is the entry below which 25% lie and Q3 is one above which 25% lie

Hence proper definition would be

d. The first quartile is the median of the lower half of the data below the overall median.

The second quartile is the overall median

The third quartile is the median of the upper half of the data above the overall median.

Option b is wrong becuase mean is not necessary here. Option a is wrong because this has nothing to do with std deviation

Option c is wrong since minimum value cannot be q1

Option e is wrong because we have exactly 25% lie below Q1

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the edge of a tile is trimmed to make it fit along the edge of the shower. the diagram shows the angles that was cut. what is th

eimsori [14]

Answer:

x° = 77.7°

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the interior angles within a quadrilateral add up to 360 degrees. We are provided with two right angles and a third angle of 102.3°. So we must solve to find x.

90 + 90 = 180

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x = 77.7 degrees

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3 years ago

In a game, you toss a fair coin and a fair six-sided die. If you toss a heads on the coin and roll either a 3 or a 6 on the die,

pochemuha

Using probabilities, it is found that the expected profit of one round of this game is of $0.

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

One of the two sides of the coin are heads.
2 of the 6 sides of the dice are 3 or 6.

Hence, since the coin and the dice are independent, the probability of winning is:

$p = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{6}$

The expected value is the sum of each outcome multiplied by its respective probability.

In this problem:

$\frac{1}{6}$ probability of earning $30.
$\frac{5}{6}$ probability of losing $6.

Then:

$E(X) = 30\frac{1}{6} - 6\frac{5}{6} = 5 - 5 = 0$

The expected profit of one round of this game is of $0.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24855677

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2 years ago

Tell which property you would use to solve the question. p - 4 = 8

Grace [21]

I THINK it's possibly distributive??

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

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suter [353]

Answer: 0.064

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability formula :-

$P(X)=^nC_x \ p^x\ (1-p)^{n-x}$ , where P(x) is the probability of getting success in x trials, n is total number of trials and p is the probability of getting succes in each trial.