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saw5 [17]
3 years ago
6

In a job order cost system, direct labor and factory overhead applied are debited to individual jobs. How are these items treate

d in a process cost system and why?
Business
1 answer:
PIT_PIT [208]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The way the costs of direct labor and factory overhead applied are treated in a process costing system is different from their treatment in a job costing system.  In process costing system, they are debited to the Work in Process account.

The reason for this is that in process costing, costs are not directly attributable to individual jobs.  Instead, costs are accumulated in Work in Process before they are assigned to individual production units.

Explanation:

Job order costing system accumulates costs for individual jobs while a process costing system accumulates costs in the Work in Process account and then allocates the costs to individuals units of production.  The difference depends on the nature of the two systems and how possible it is to identify the costs and attribute them to individual jobs or units.

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The Rogers Corporation has a gross profit of $704,000 and $333,000 in depreciation expense. The Evans Corporation also has $704,
Reil [10]

Answer:

a. Cash Flow Rogers =  $441,000

Cash Flow Evans = $327,520

b. $113,480

Explanation:

The computation of the cash flow for both companies are shown below:

a. For Cash Flow Rogers

= Gross profit - Selling and administrative expense - income tax expense + depreciation expense × tax rate

where,  

Income tax expense = (Gross profit - Selling and administrative expense) × income tax rate  

= ($704,000 - $191,000) × 40%  

= $205,200

And, the other items values would remain the same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $704,000 - $191,000 - $205,200 + $333,000 × 40%

= $307,800 + $133,200

= $441,000

For Cash Flow Evans

= Gross profit - Selling and administrative expense - income tax expense + depreciation expense × tax rate

where,  

Income tax expense = (Gross profit - Selling and administrative expense) × income tax rate  

= ($704,000 - $191,000) × 40%  

= $205,200

And, the other items values would remain the same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= $704,000 - $191,000 - $205,200 + $49,300 × 40%

= $307,800 + $19,720

= $327,520

b. The computation of the difference in cash flow between the two firms are shown below:

= Cash Flow Rogers - Cash Flow Evans

= $441,000 -  $327,520

= $113,480

5 0
3 years ago
Tool Manufacturing has an expected EBIT of $72,000 in perpetuity and a tax rate of 24 percent. The company has $128,500 in outst
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

The value of the company according to MM Proposition I with taxes is $528294.55

Explanation:

value of unlevered firm  = EBIT(1-T)/Ru

                                        = 72000*(1 - 24%)/11%  

                                       = 497454.55

value of levered firm = 497454.55 + 128500*0.24

                                   = $528294.55

Therefore, The value of the company according to MM Proposition I with taxes is $528294.55

4 0
3 years ago
When conducting a SWOT analysis, information about turnover, profit margins, and staff quality can be used to identify: Company
Finger [1]

Answer:

Company strengths and weaknesses

Explanation:

SWOT analysis is a strategic technique that help to identify company´s risk or weakness and how to overcome with it´s strength and opportunity. It can be used at any platform. It is useful analysis for future course of action that help the company to grow and prepare itself from any possible threat.

SWOT stands for Stength, Weakness, opportunity and threat.

6 0
3 years ago
A company is selling cookies for $3 per bag. The ingredients costs $9.3 and can make 37 bags with the ingredients. How much prof
ad-work [718]

Answer: $2.75 profits per bag

Explanation:

9.3/37 in order to find how much it costs her per bag to make.

This equals approx .25 cents

Then subtract this from $3 in order to get how much profit per bag she makes.

6 0
3 years ago
If the coupon rate on a bond is higher than the yield to maturity, Multiple Choice the bond sells at a discount. the coupon rate
Law Incorporation [45]

Answer:

the current yield on the bond is lower now than when the bond was originally issued.

Explanation:

A bond can be defined as a debt or fixed investment security, in which a bondholder (investor or creditor) loans an amount of money to the bond issuer (government or corporations) for a specific period of time. The bond issuer are expected to return the principal (face value) at maturity with an agreed upon interest (coupon), which are paid at fixed intervals.

A yield to maturity can be defined as the bond's total rate of return required by the secondary market while the coupon rate is defined as the annual interest of a bond divided by its face value.

Hence, if the coupon rate on a bond is higher than the yield to maturity, the current yield on the bond is lower now than when the bond was originally issued.

7 0
3 years ago
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