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Brilliant_brown [7]
1 year ago
14

_____ funds are highly speculative investments that seek large profits from capital gains. group of answer choices

Business
1 answer:
galina1969 [7]1 year ago
5 0

​Aggressive growth funds are highly speculative and seek large profits from capital gains.

What Is an Aggressive Growth Fund?

An aggressive growth fund is a mutual fund that seeks capital gains by investing in the shares of growth company stocks. Investments held in these funds are companies that demonstrate high growth potential, but also carry greater risk.

What is the advantage of aggressive growth?

Growth has its advantages; it enables a company to reach more customers, generate more sales, and put money back in the business.

Are aggressive growth funds a good investment?

Aggressive growth funds are identified in the market as offering above average returns for investors willing to take some additional investment risk. They are expected to outperform standard growth funds by investing more heavily in companies they identify with aggressive growth prospects.

Learn more about aggressive growth fund:

brainly.com/question/14698110

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A marketing company wants to estimate the proportion of consumers in a certain region of the country who would react favorably t
Sindrei [870]

The closest to the minimum number of consumers needed to obtain the estimate with the desired precision is (b) 271

Explanation:

When the prior estimate of population proportion is not given , then the formula to find the sample size is given by :-

n=0.25(\frac{z^{*} }{E} )^{2}

where E = Margin of error.

z* = Critical z-value.

As per given , we have

E = 5%=0.05

Confidence level = 90%

The critical value of z at 90% is 1.645  (By z-table)

Put all values in the formula , we get

n=0.25(1.645/0.05)²

n=0.25(32.9)²

n=270.6025≈271

Thus, the minimum sample size needed = 271

Hence , the correct answer is 271 .

8 0
3 years ago
When a financial friction is added to the short-run model it: Group of answer choices shifts the MP curve up. shifts the IS curv
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

When a financial friction is added to the short-run model it: shifts the MP curve up.

Explanation:

The short-run model, IS/MP model, describes the Investment-Savings/Monetary Policy model used by the US Federal Reserve to decrease the real interest rate through the Federal Funds rate, i.

The Federal Funds rate is the interest rate that commercial banks with excess reserves lend to others in deficit.  The resulting shift occasions a decrease in the real interest rate which triggers an increase in the inflation rate, and vice versa.  With such short-run changes in the interest rate, inflation and output is influenced in desirable directions by the Federal Reserve as a foundation to achieve long-term shifts in the AD-AS model.

The AD-AS model is a long-term model that describes Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply which impact long-term inflation, interest rates, and output.

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose the economy is in a recessionary gap. to move equilibrium aggregate output closer to the level of potential output, the
prisoha [69]
The best option is to decrease taxes.
5 0
3 years ago
According to Mikey, the founder, Holden Outerwear does not manufacture its garments in the United States because of the: aplicat
wolverine [178]

Answer:

d

Explanation:

The complete question is mentioned in attachment. According to 2nd line and  2nd last line, option d is the ocrrect answer.

3 0
3 years ago
Category 2013 2014 Accounts payable 16,200 ???? Accounts receivable 48,600 44,500 Accruals 24,300 16,200 Cash 81,000 98,000 Comm
Anestetic [448]

Answer:

The answer is e. 40,500.

Explanation:

To find out the balance for account payable in 2014, we need to recall to the Accounting equation:

Asset = Liabilities + Owner's Equity

Applying in the question, we replace the balance of asset items, liability items and equity items in 2014 to find the answer:

Account Receivable + Cash + Inventories + Net Fixed Asset = Account Payable + Accruals + Common Stock + Long term debt + Notes payable + Retained earnings

=> 44,500 + 98,000 + 60,800 + 121,500 = Account Payable + 16,200 + 81,000 + 89,100 + 37,200 + 60,800 <=> Account Payable = $40,500.

So, the answer is e. 40,500.

5 0
3 years ago
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