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marysya [2.9K]
3 years ago
13

Graph y = 2/3x this khan academy buulcrap >:(

Mathematics
1 answer:
alexgriva [62]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

.__.

Step-by-step explanation:

Start from (0,0), go up 2 units, right 3 units. Repeat and there, you graphed it! Now pat yourself on the back and move on with your life :D

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What is the domain of this exponential function?
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

Domain = x E R

Step-by-step explanation:

Since an exponential function has no restriction on the "x" value, its domain can range from anywhere on the plane of "x."

3 0
3 years ago
What is the set fee, or initial value, of this function
Ber [7]
Answer:
The set fee would be $15

Explanation:
The set fee is the starting value. This means that it is the value of the y at x = 0 (y-intercept).

To get the set fee, we would first need to get the equation of the line.

Equation of the linear line has the following general formula:
y = mx + c
where m is the slope and c is the y-intercept

1- getting the slope:
we are given two points which are:
(20,25) and (50,40)
the slope = \frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}=  \frac{40-25}{50-20} = 0.5

The equation now is:
y = 0.5x + c

2- getting the value of the y-intercept:
To get the value of the c, we will use any of the given points, substitute in the equation and solve for c.
I will choose the point (20,25)
y = 0.5x + c
25 = 0.5(20) + c
25 = 10 + c
c = 15

The equation of the line representing the scenario is:
y = 0.5x + 15

Now, we know that the value of the c is the y-intercept which is the initial value of the function at x=0.
In our situation, this represents the set fee.

Hope this helps :)
6 0
3 years ago
I NEED HELP I WILL MARK IT BRAINLY
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

W=2/(P-2L)

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Help ! Im not sure how to do this
never [62]
OD-OC
OR D-C
(same thing)
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You roll a number cube twice what is the probability of rolling a 2
Colt1911 [192]

The probability of getting a 5 from the first rolling is 1/6.  The probability of getting an even number  is 1/2 (= 1/6 (for a 2) + 1/6 (for a 4) + 1/6 (for a 6)).  As the two rollings are independent, you can just multiply two probability values to come up with a final answer.  That is, (1/6)·(1/2) = 1/12.

Note that I did not write this. This answer comes from Wyzant. I am only linking this to you so that you'll get the answer quickly.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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