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Ipatiy [6.2K]
2 years ago
8

Compare each set of numbers using <, > or3.082 x 1054.13 x 103Select onem​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Darya [45]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

4.13 \times 103 > 3.082 \times 105

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Plz help with this I don’t really get it
Greeley [361]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Associative Property of Multiplication is a(bc) = (ab)c

d is the only one that follows the rule

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
Which question represents the line through (0,0) and (2,5)?
madam [21]

Answer:

y=5/2x

Step-by-step explanation:

The line needs to go through the points (0,0) and (2,5).

With y=5/2x, there is no y-intercept, so it starts on the origin, (0,0). With the slope 5/2, you would rise 5 (y) from the origin, and run 2 (x), which gives you the point (2,5).

4 0
1 year ago
How do we calculate 25% of 300
Natali5045456 [20]
25% is equal to \frac{1}{4}. To get 25% of 300, we multiply 300 by either 0.25 or \frac{1}{4}. This gives us (300)( \frac{1}{4}) =  \frac{300}{4}  =  \frac{150}{2} = 75
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is Roman numeral of LXVX in number​
alekssr [168]

Answer:

That is the number two (2)

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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