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Reptile [31]
3 years ago
13

If a firm applies its overall cost of capital to all its proposed projects, then the divisions within the firm will tend to ____

__. Group of answer choices receive less funding if they represent the riskiest operations of the firm avoid risky projects so that they will receive more funding become less risky over time based on the projects that are accepted have equal probabilities of receiving funding for their projects propose higher risk projects than if separate discount rates were applied to each project
Business
1 answer:
balandron [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

receive less funding if they represent the riskiest operations of the firm                

Explanation:

In simple words, the cost of capital is represented as weighted average and its represents the level or return expected by the investors and represents the level of risk of the firm on average. Therefore, managers tends to lift up or down this return depending upon the risk of the potential project to be taken.

   Thus, if the average return will be applied for all projects then high risk projects will get less funding and low risk project will get excess funding.

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On August 1, Steffen Computers, Inc. purchased thirty computer chips on account from a company located in Taiwan for 520,000 Tai
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

(C) debit to Foreign-Currency Transaction Loss-$1040

Explanation:

Foreign currency related Financial assets and financial liabilities are usually revalued with any difference as a result of the exchange rates posted as a gain or loss in the income statement.

On transaction date, cost of assets

= 520000 * $0.034

On payment date, the amount paid

= 520000 * $0.036

The amount paid is higher than the liability recorded before hence the difference is recognized as a loss on foreign exchange.

= 520000 * $0.036 - 520000 * $0.034

= $1040

4 0
3 years ago
Nash's Trading Post, LLC uses the percentage of receivables basis to record bad debt expense and concludes that 3% of accounts r
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

(a) Prepare the adjusting journal entry to record bad debt expense for the year with Allowance for Doubtful Account of $ 3,041

Dr Bad Debt Expenses                      $10,150

  Cr Allowance for doubtful debt      $10,150

(b) Prepare the adjusting journal entry to record bad debt expense for the year with Allowance for Doubtful Account of $ 918

Dr Bad Debt Expenses                      $14,109

  Cr Allowance for doubtful debt      $14,109

Explanation:

The Allowance for Doubtful Account will have the Balance of : 439,700 x 3% = $13,191

(a): Bad Debt Expenses needs to be recorded: 13,191 - 3,041 = $10,150

(b): Bad Debt Expenses needs to be recorded: 13,191 + 918 = $14,109

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an example of successive approximation
nadya68 [22]
Giving positive reinforcement when a student comes close to what you wanted 
5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2020, Hat Trick Manufacturing exchanged some equipment for a $750,000 zero-interest-bearing note due on January 1,
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

61,198.47

Explanation:

First we solve for the present value of the note receivables at January 1st, 2021 As we are asked for the interest revenue on the 2021 incoem statment

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $750,000.00

time  2.00

rate  0.10000

\frac{750000}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV  

PV   619,834.7107

now, we calcualte the interest considering the 10% implicit interest

619,834.7107  x 0.10 = 61,198.47

This will be the interest revenu for the year 2021

4 0
3 years ago
Cash flows of two mutually exclusive projects are as follows. Project A costs $80,000 initially and will have a $15,000 salvage
son4ous [18]

Answer:

C. The present worth of project A is -$143,252.17

Explanation:

Present worth can be calculated using a financial calculator

For method A ,

Cash flow in year 0 = $80,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 = $30,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $30,000 - $15,000 = $15,000

I = 10%

Present worth= $ 143,335.84

For method B,

Cash flow in year 0 = $120,000

Cash flow in year 1 and 2 = $8, 000

Cash flow in year 3 = $8,000 - $40,000 = $-32,000

I = 10%

Present worth = $130,157.78

Method b would is chosen because it worth less.

To find the present worth using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

4 0
4 years ago
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