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Marina86 [1]
3 years ago
10

Assume that it is January 1, 2019, and that the Mendoza Company is considering the replacement of a machine that has been used f

or the past 3 years in a special project for the company. This project is expected to continue for an additional 5 years (i.e., until the end of 2023). Mendoza will either keep the existing machine for another 5 years (8 years total) or replace the existing machine now with a new model that has a 5-year estimated life. Pertinent facts regarding this decision are as follows:
Keep Existing Machine Purchase New Machine
Purchase price of machine (including transportation, setup charges, etc.) $ 150,000 $ 190,000
Useful life (determined at time of acquisition) 8 years 5 years
Estimated salvage value, end of 2023* $ 20,000 $ 25,000
Expected cash operating costs, per year:
Variable (per unit produced/sold) $ 0.25 $ 0.19
Fixed costs (total) $ 25,000 $ 24,000
Estimated salvage (terminal) values:
January 1, 2019 $ 68,000
December 31, 2023 $ 12,000 $ 22,000
Net working capital committed at time of acquisition of existing machine (all fully recovered at end of project, December 31, 2023) $ 30,000
Incremental net working capital required if new machine is purchased on January 1, 2019 (all fully recovered at end of project, December 31, 2023) $ 10,000
Expected annual volume of output/sales (in units), over the period 2019–2023 500,000 500,000
*Note: These amounts are used for depreciation calculations.
Assume further that Mendoza is subject to a 40% income tax, both for ordinary income and gains/losses associated with disposal of machinery, and that all cash flows occur at the end of the year, except for the initial investment. Assume that straight-line depreciation is used for tax purposes and that any tax associated with the disposal of machinery occurs at the same time of the related transaction.
Required:
1. Determine relevant cash flows (after-tax) at time of purchase of the new machine (i.e., time 0: January 1, 2019).
2. Determine the relevant (after-tax) cash inflow each year of project operation (i.e., at the end of each of years 1 through 5).
3. Determine the relevant (after-tax) cash inflow at the end of the project's life (i.e., at the project's disposal time, December 31, 2023).
5. Determine the undiscounted net cash flow (after tax) for the new machine and determine whether on this basis the old machine should be replaced.
Business
1 answer:
Mashcka [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

C

Explanation:

c is the answer just trust

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Sal has heard a lot about his town's country club. He heard it has a great golf course, tennis courts, and dining room. In addit
Anna11 [10]

Answer:

An aspiration referral group

Explanation:

As he cannot join the group today, due to shortage of funds, he will join the group later, and accordingly, he expects it to be his aspiration to join the group.

That means it is his wish to join the group, this reflects clearly that the group is an aspirational referral group.

As all the partner's of his business are also members of the group he shall be expecting them to put a referral.

Therefore, the group will be considered as the aspiration referral group.

7 0
3 years ago
If the research is subject to Subpart D, which of the following research activities with children would qualify for an exemption
denis23 [38]

Answer:

The answer is letter A.

Explanation:

Research about aptitude testing

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The risk free rate of return is 2.5% and the market risk premium is 8%. Rogue Transport has a beta of 2.2 and a standard deviati
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

20.1%

Explanation:

In capital asset prcing model (CAPM), cost of equity (or cost of retained earnings in this context) is calculated as below:

<em>Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta x (market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em>

Please note that <em>(market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em> is equal to <em>market risk premium</em>

Putting all the number together, we have:

Cost of equity/retained earnings = 2.5% + 2.2 x 8% = 20.1%

<em>Note: The dividend growth rate, tax rate & stock standard deviation is not relevant in answering the question.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
Jacob is looking to buy some car insurance and is reviewing different policies from several different agencies. The first policy
Lostsunrise [7]

The expected value of buying this insurance policy is $50.

The expected value of buying the insurance policy is the weighted average of probabilities of the cost of the insurance and the cover if Jacob gets into an accident.

If Jacob gets into an accident and is covered, his payout will be:

= benefit - cost

= 10,000 - 750

= $9,250

The probability of this happening is 8%.

If Jacob does not get into an accident he would lose the $750 he paid in insurance premiums. The probability of this happening is:

= 100% - 8%

= 92%

The expected value of the insurance is:

= (probability of accident * payout if there is an accident) + (probability of no accident * payout if there is no accident)

= (8% * 9,250) + (92% * -750)

= $50

<em>More information on expected value can be found at brainly.com/question/17069001.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose the japanese yen exchange rate is ¥73.47 = $1, and the british pound exchange rate is £1 = $1.53.
sineoko [7]

Answer: Cross-rate can be found by using the given formula ,

¥73.47 = $1\\£1 = $1.53

So,

£1 = $1.53 $1 = \frac{£1}{1.53}  $1= £0.6536

Substituting this into the exchange rate for Yen and dollars, we get

¥73.47 = $1 ¥73.47 = £0.6536

¥73.47/0.6536 = £1 ¥112.4082=£1

Cross-rate in terms of Yen per Pound is 112.41

b. If cross-rate is ¥115=£1, this means that Yen is quoted high relative to pound. So, the arbitrage profit per dollar will be,

Suppose we take a a loan for $1 and buy £0.6536. Then we use the pounds to purchase yen at the cross-rate, so we have

£0.6536 (¥115/£1) = ¥75.164

Now, we replay the loan in dollars by exchanging Yen back to dollars. The cost to repay will be:

¥75.164($1/¥73.47) = $1.02305

Your arbitrage profit is $0.02305 per $1 used.

5 0
3 years ago
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