The two numbers I think is 3&6 because this is a trick question
Answer:
If you put it in your calculator you should get the right answer
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.03333
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.
Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3
The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.
Machine I II III total
Faulty 0.10 0.20 0.05
Prob 0.3333 0.3333 0.3334 1
Faulty*prob 0.03333 0.06666 0.16665 0.26664
Thus probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine
= 0.03333
Answer:
40 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
You can simply make 200/5 = 40 5 minute calls per month.
This works because every call is a 5-minute call. So then we just have to find how many times we can make a 5-minute call up to 200 minutes. We already have an operation for this: Division. This acts as the opposite of multiplication and speeds our process up.
So we could plot those points, 0, 5. When x is 0, y is 5. When x is 6, y is 0. I think if wrong sorry
