Answer:
a. by making long trips less expensive
b. by making long trips in less time
c. by opening up new trade markets
e. by increasing travel options
Explanation:
Answer:
1.
Required rate = risk free rate + beta (market rate – risk free rate)
.12 = 0.0525 + 1.25(X – 0.0525)
1.25X – 0.065625 = .12 – 0.0525
1.25X = 0.0675 + 0.065625
X = .1333125/1.25
= 0.1065
Marker risk premium = market rate – risk free rate
= .1065 – 0.0525
= 0.054 (A)
2.
Beta of portfolio = (5000000/5500000)* 1.25 + (500000/5500000)* 1
= 0.90909* 1.25 + 0.090909* 1
= 1.136 + 0.090909
= 1.2273
3.
Required rate = risk free rate + beta (market rate – risk free rate)
= 0.0525 + 1.2273* 0.054
= 0.0525 + 0.06627
= .11877 or 11.88%
Given:
D = 40 pcs /hour
T = 36/60 = 0.60 hours
X = 0.20
C = 10
Find the value of N.
N = DT (1 + X) / C
N = [40/hr * 0.60 hr (1 + 0.20)] / 10
N = [24 (1.20)] / 10
N = 28.8 / 10
N = 2.88 or 3
3 containers should be used to support the operation.
Answer:
the Sharpe ratio of the optimal complete portfolio is 0.32
Explanation:
The computation of the sharpe ratio is shown below:
= (Return of portfolio - risk free asset) ÷ Standard deviation
= (17% - 9%) ÷ 25%
= 8% ÷ 25%
= 0.32
Hence, the Sharpe ratio of the optimal complete portfolio is 0.32
We simply applied the above formula
Answer:
-11.8%
Explanation:
the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:
so in this particular case that one year later there are 29 years to maturity so we have:
so as we have a higher rate the investment has the next return:
