The correct answer is choice b - the percentage of receivables basis.
When an accountant is calculating the bad debts expense they will take into account the balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Account when they are calculating on the percentage of sales basis.
Rules of thumb or short-cuts that individuals use to save time when making complex decisions are known as....<span>Heuristics</span>
Answer:
Share price : $ 56.23
Explanation:
CAPM
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.11
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.06
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.64
Ke 0.14840
Now, we solve for the present value of the future dividends:
year dividend* present value**
1 2.91 2.53
2 3.31 2.51
3 3.78 2.49
4 4.31 2.48
4 80.38 46.22
TOTAL 56.23
*Dividends will be calculate as the previous year dividends tiems the grow rate
during the first four year is 14%
then, we calcualte the present value of all the future dividends growing at 9% using the dividend grow model:
(4.31 x 1.09) / (0.1484 - 0.09) = 80.38
Then we discount eahc using the present value of a lump sum:
We discount using the CAPM COst of Capital of 14.84%
last we add them all to get the share price: $ 56.23
Answer:
The journal entries to record the whole purchase and payment process are:
May 1, purchase of merchandise on account
Dr Merchandise inventory 400
Cr Accounts payable 400
May 3, defective merchandise returned
Dr Accounts payable 50
Cr Purchase returns and allowances 50
Dr Purchase returns and allowances 50
Cr Merchandise inventory 50
May 10? payment of merchandise account
Dr Accounts payable 350
Cr Cash 343
Cr Purchases discounts 7
Answer: $11,000
Explanation:
The solution to this problem is not tedious or complicated
Solution;
Amount is = $110,000
Percentage of down payment is given as = 10%
To get the amount of the down payments we find the 10% of $110,00
10% of $110,000 is = 10÷100
=0.1
We multiply it by the amount which is 0.1×110,000= $ 11,000