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monitta
3 years ago
8

Moes sells 10 tacos for $8.49 or Taco Bell sells 6 of the same kind of taco for $5.40. Which is a better deal? Clearly show the

math that supports your answer. (labels are always helpful)
Mathematics
2 answers:
sveta [45]3 years ago
7 0
Moes tacos is .85 cent per taco while Taco Bell’s is .90 cent per taco therefore moes is a better deal.
Degger [83]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The one that sells 10 tacos for $8.49

To get the better deal, you should find the selling prices for a single tacos in both cases  and compare the amounts.

In the first one, 10 tacos for $8.49

This means 1 tacos sells for $8.49/10 = $0.849

In the second one, 6 for $5.40, this means for a single tacos, the selling price is $5.40/6 =$0.9

The better deal is the first one that sells one taco for $0.849 compared to the second one that sells one tacos for $0.9

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the slope of a trend line that passes through the points (1.3) and (10, 25)?
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Step-by-step explanation:

-1/2

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3 years ago
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Kiran mixes \frac{3}{4}
Serhud [2]

Step-by-step explanation:

7.5 cups of raisins, 10 cups of peanuts and 5 cups of chocolate chips.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that,

The amount of ingredients needed for the trail mix are,

Raisins = \frac{3}{4}

4

3

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Peanuts = 1 cup

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Since, Kiran needs to make 10 cups of the trail mix.

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2

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×10 = 5 cups

Hence, the ingredients needed are 7.5 cups of raisins, 10 cups of peanuts and 5 cups of chocolate chips.

6 0
3 years ago
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Find the inverse of f(x)=2x-1
solong [7]

{ \qquad\qquad\huge\underline{{\sf Answer}}}

Let's find the inverse of given function ~

\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: f(x) = 2x - 1

\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: 2x = f(x) + 1

\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: x =  \cfrac{f(x) + 1}{2}

[ now, replace f(x) and x with \sf{ {f}^{-1}(x)} ]

\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: f {}^{ - 1} (x) =  \cfrac{x + 1}{2}

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8 0
1 year ago
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The prior probabilities for events A1 and A2 are P(A1) = 0.40 and P(A2) = 0.60. It is also known that P(A1 ∩ A2) = 0. Suppose P(
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

Check Explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Yes, the two events are mutually exclusive. The true meaning of mutually exclusive is that both A1 and A2 have no sample points in common and cannot both occur at the same time.

The only sure mathematical way to tell is from P(A1 n A2) = 0.

Note that this is different from when two events are independent. Two events are independent when the chances of one occurring does not depend on the chances of the other event occurring at all. Independent events can both occur at the same time. Mathematically, independent events are described as P(A1|A2) = P(A1) and P(A2|A1) = P(A2)

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P(B) = 0.08 + 0.03 = 0.11

Hope this helps!!

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3 years ago
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