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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
14

The top salary you can make.

Business
1 answer:
vovikov84 [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

earning potential

Explanation:

Earning potential refers to the potential gains from dividend payments and capital appreciation shareholders might earn from holding a stock. In other words, it reflects the largest possible profit that a corporation can make

You might be interested in
On January 1, 2021, American Corporation purchased 25% of the outstanding voting shares of Short Supplies common stock for $210,
Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

"$224,000" is the correct solution.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Corporation purchased percentage,

= 25%

Original investment,

= $210,000

Short's net income,

= $80,000

Paid cash dividend,

= $24,000

Now,

The share of net income will be:

= 25 \ percent\times 80,000

= 0.25\times 80000

= 20,000 ($)

The cash dividend will be:

= 25 \ percent\times 24,000

= 0.25\times 24,000

= 6,000 ($)

hence,

On December 31, 2021, the balance will be:

= Original \ investment+Net \ income \ share+Cash \ dividend

= 210,000+20,000+6,000

= 230,000-6,000

= 224,000 ($)

6 0
2 years ago
Help asap please:)))!!!
morpeh [17]

Answer:

number 4

Explanation:

i used a calculator

3 0
3 years ago
Weighted Average Method, FIFO Method, Physical Flow, Equivalent Units Heap Company manufactures a product that passes through tw
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

<u>Physical flow schedule</u>

Inputs

Beginning Work in Process                86,300

Add Units Started                              105,900

Total                                                    192,200

Outputs

Units Completed and Transferred   172,900

Units in Ending Work in Process       19,300

Total                                                    192,200

Explanation:

A physical flow schedule is simply a schedule of units introduced into the process and units outputs without expressing them to equivalent units.

Units Introduced must always be equal to units outputs in physicals terms.

<em>Units Completed and Transferred = Beginning Inventory + Units Started - Units in Ending Work in Process</em>

                                                        = 86,300 + 105,900 - 19,300

                                                        = 172,900

6 0
2 years ago
Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma
Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so  the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

P=90X+120Y+150Z

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}

That of machine 2 is given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}

That of machine 3 is given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

4 0
3 years ago
Electrix Inc. is an electrical appliances manufacturing company. It distributes shares of stock to its employees by placing the
Leni [432]

Answer:

<em>Employee stock ownership  plan</em>

Explanation:

An employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) is <em>a retirement plan wherein the employer contributes its shares (or funds to purchase its stock) to the fund for the advantage of the employees of the company.</em>

The company maintains an account for every employee who participates in the program.

Over time stock shares accumulate before an employee is eligible to them.

With an ESOP, while still working with the company, you never purchase or keep the stock directly.

If an employee is fired, decides to retire, is disabled, or dies, the company must transfer the stock shares in the account of the employee.

4 0
3 years ago
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