the answer is 9.74972315 I hope you have the right answer I hope this is helpful
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Let's define the cost of the cheaper game as X, and the cost of the pricer game as Y.
The total cost of both games is:
X + Y
We know that both games cost just above AED 80
Then:
X + Y > AED 80
From this, we want to prove that at least one of the games costed more than AED 40.
Now let's play with the possible prices of X, there are two possible cases:
X is larger than AED 40
X is equal to or smaller than AED 40.
If X is more than AED 40, then we have a game that costed more than AED 40.
If X is less than or equal to AED 40, then:
X ≥ AED 40
Now let's take the maximum value of X in this scenario, this is:
X = AED 40
Replacing this in the first inequality, we get:
X + Y > AED 80
Replacing the value of X we get:
AED 40 + Y > AED 80
Y > AED 80 - AED 40
Y > AED 40
So when X is equal or smaller than AED 40, the value of Y is larger than AED 40.
So we proven that in all the possible cases, at least one of the two games costs more than AED 40.
Answer:
Okay so I am not positive but I will try to help you out. Okay so the line of best fit would positive. Because it is all going up. The approximate slope is 3/4 Because slope is change in y over change in x. The y intercept of the line of best fit would be (0,0). This is because when drawing the line you can see that it would intercept the y-axis at zero. My steps taken were basically just looking at it and peicing everything together. If you want to get more involved with slope you could pick to coordinates which I will include and do change in y over change in x.
My points I will pick are (1,1) and (5,2)
2-1/5-1=3/4
therefore approximate slope is 3/4
Like I said I am not positive but I am just trying to help out in some way.
If something is incorrect please inform me. If this helps also please inform me.
