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iogann1982 [59]
3 years ago
9

Assume you are to receive a 30-year annuity with annual payments of $2,000. The first payment will be received at the end of Yea

r 1, and the last payment will be received at the end of Year 30. You will invest each payment in an account that pays 6 percent annually compounded interest. What will be the value in your account at 55 years from today?​
Business
1 answer:
max2010maxim [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Total FV= $678.615.02

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the value of the annuity at the end of the last payment:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {2,000*[(1.06^30) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $158,116.37

<u>Now, the total future value after 25 years:</u>

FV= PV*(1 + i)^n

FV= 158,116.37*(1.06^25)

FV= $678.615.02

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Cobe Company has already manufactured 19,000 units of Product A at a cost of $25 per unit. The 19,000 units can be sold at this
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

Incremental net income from further processing is  $566,600

Explanation:

First of all, it would be necessary to compute profit from selling the product at cut off point and profit when it is further processed in order to determine whether or not it is worth processing further:

Sales revenue                                        $400,000

cost of production(19,000*$25)            $475,000

Loss from selling                                  ($75,000)

Further processing:

sales revenue

Product B(5200*$108)                       $561,600

Product C(11,000*$55)                       $605,000

Total revenue                                     $1,166,600

total cost

cost of production                              ($475,000)

cost of further processing                 ($200,000)

total costs                                           ($675,000)

Profit                                                    $491600

By further processing the incremental net profit is $566,600 ($491,600-(-$75000)

4 0
3 years ago
At the end of the year, Dahir Incorporated’s balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts is $2,400 (credit) before adjustmen
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

The adjustment Dahir would record for Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts:

Debit Bad debts expense $9,600

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $9,600

Explanation:

At the end of the year, before adjustment, Dahir Incorporated’s balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts is $2,400 (credit).

The company estimates uncollectible accounts to be $12,000

Bad debts expense = $12,000 - $2,400 = $9,600

The adjustment to record Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts:

Debit Bad debts expense $9,600

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $9,600

8 0
3 years ago
Consider the following two assets. The first is a stock fund, the second is a long-term government and corporate bond fund. The
yarga [219]

Answer:

0.76

Explanation:

So, in this particular question we are given that that there are two assets which are the; [1]. stock fund and [2]. a long-term government and corporate bond fund.

From the question/problem, we have that the Expected ret and the std. dev. for the Stock fund is 18% and 25% respectively. Also, the Expected ret and std. dev. for  Bond fund 11% and 18% respectively.

Thus, the investment proportion in the minimum variance portfolio of the bond fund = 1 - [ ( 18%)² - 0.4 × 25% × 18%) ÷ ( 25%)² + (18%)² - 2 × 0.4 × 25% × 18%. = 1 - [0.0144 ÷ 0.0609 ] = 1 - 0.24 = 0.76.

6 0
3 years ago
An investment that costs $5,800 will produce annual cash flows of $2,480 for a period of 4 years. Given a desired rate of return
aleksandrvk [35]

Based on the present value of the annual cash flows and the investment cost, the present value index is 1.39

<h3>How is the present value index calculated?</h3>

To find the present value index, use the formula:

= Present value of cash flow/Investment cost

The present value of cash flow is:

= Annual cash flows x Present value interest factor of annuity, 9%, 4 years

= 2,480 x 3.239719877

= $8,034.51

The present value index is:

= 8,034.51 / 5,800

= 1.39

Find out more on present value index at brainly.com/question/23259683

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
5. Suppose Hillard Manufacturing sold an issue of bonds with a 12-year maturity, a $1,000 par value, a 10% coupon rate, and semi
balandron [24]

Answer:

Price of bonds = $1,389.73  

Explanation:

<em>The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV). </em>

Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV

The value of bond for Hillard  can be worked out as follows:

Step 1  

<em>Calculate the PV of interest payments </em>

Semi annual interest payment

= 10% × 1,000 × 1/2 =50

PV of interest payment

A ×(1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

r- semi-annual yield = 5%/2 = 2.5%

n- 10× 2 = 20.

Note that the bonds now have 10 years to maturity because it was issued 2 years ago

PV on interest = 50 × (1-(1.025^(-20)/0.0425 = 779.45

Step 2

<em>PV of redemption Value </em>

PV = $1,000 × (1.025)^(-20) =   610.27

Step 3

<em>Price of bond </em>

=  779.45+  610.27 =  $1,389.73

Price of bonds = $1,389.73  

4 0
3 years ago
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