If Jon needs to find the value of cos P in △PQR , which of the following ratios should he use?

Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has

RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)

FLAW TYPE2 NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1 0.015 0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW 0.01 0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) = p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) = 0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE the Bivariate Table;

FLAW TYPE2 NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1 0.015 0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW 0.01 0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3) probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) = p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% = 0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0

4 years ago

Choose the best description for graphing y = 3x - 5 using the slope and the y-intercept.

expeople1 [14]

3 is the slope, (0,-5) is the y-intercept of the graph.

8 0

3 years ago

Please help me by showing how to do it

Margaret [11]

20 x 10 = 200
45 - 10 = 35 - 8 = 27
8 x 8 = 64
20 - 8 = 22
22 x 45 = 990
The area of the shape is 990 square feet.

Hope I could help!

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

As Jupiter revolves around the sun, it travels at a speed of approximately 8 miles per second. Convert this speed to kilometers

Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

The kilometers Jupiter travel in 5 seconds is 64 kilometers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

As Jupiter revolves around the sun, it travels at a speed of approximately 8 miles per second.

1 mile is equal to 1.6 kilometers.

Now, to convert this speed to kilometers per second, and at this speed to find kilometers will Jupiter travel in 5 seconds.

So, to convert speed of miles per second into kilometres per second:

1 mile = 1.6 kilometres.

Thus, 8 miles = 8 × 1.6 = 12.8 kilometres per second.

Now, at this speed we calculate the kilometres Jupiter travel in 5 seconds by multiplying:

In 1 second Jupiter travel = 12.8 kilometres.

So, in 5 seconds Jupiter travel $=12.8\times 5$

$=64\ kilometers.$

Therefore, the kilometers Jupiter travel in 5 seconds is 64 kilometers.

6 0

4 years ago

Solve using quadratic equations

olasank [31]

4x² - 9x² + 5 = 0
4x² - 4x - 5x + 5 = 0
4x(x - 1) - 5(x - 1) = 0
(4x - 5)(x - 1) = 0

Set each binomial equal to zero.

4x - 5 = 0
4x = 0 + 5
4x = 5
x = 5/4

x - 1 = 0
x = 0 + 1
x = 1

Your solutions are x = 1, 5/4

7 0

4 years ago