Answer:
$462,562
Explanation:
Lower of Cost and Net Realizable Value (LCNRV) records ending inventory at the lowest between purchase costs or net realizable value.
Part Q Cost per Unit Net RV Total
110 620 <u>$121.00</u> $127.00 $75,020
111 1,080 $76.20 <u>$66.00</u> $71,280
112 540 $101.60 <u>$97.00</u> $52,380
113 220 <u>$215.90</u> $228.60 $47,498
120 440 <u>$260.00</u> $264.00 $114,400
121 1,400 $20.00 <u>$1.00</u> $1,400
122 330 $304.80 <u>$298.00</u> $100,584
Total $462,562
Calculation of Total Manufacturing Overhead Costs:
Manufacturing overhead costs are indirect costs incurred in relation to the production.
From the given information manufacturing overhead costs shall include factory Utilities $5,000, Indirect labor $ 25,000, depreciation of production equipment $ 20,000
Hence the Total Manufacturing Overhead Costs shall be (5000+25000+20000)=<u>$50,000</u>
Answer:
To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>
Explanation:
The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).
When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.
This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.
Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.
Answer:
Hello some parts of the question is missing here is the missing part
Age probability of female death
20 0.00060
30 0.00070
40 0.00095
50 0.00300
Answer : $110
Explanation:
Given that the woman is 20 years of age and wants to buy one-year life insurance policy the insurance company would have to charge her considering the probability of female death within 20 years of age
expected profit for insurance company = $50
cost of insurance = $100000
For the company to make a profit of $50 we make use of this relation
x * ( 1 - probability of female death at 20 ) - ( cost of insurance - x ) * probability of female death at 20 = 50
= x *( 1 - 0.00060 ) - ( 100000 - x ) * 0.00060 = 50
= x* ( 0.9994 ) - (60 - 0.00060 x ) = 50
= 0.9994 x - 60 + 0.00060 x = 50
hence x = 50 + 60 = $110
Answer:
B. 459.3 million
Explanation:
FCF5 = $26 million * (1 + 0.06) = 27.6 million
and to continue
V4 = $27.6 million / (0.12 - 0.06) = 459.3 million