Answer:
Chen should buy the new machine since it produces a positive NPV of $1,294
Explanation:
Summary of the Project Cash Flows is as follows :
Year 0 = ($120,000)
Year 1 to Year 10 = $18,900
The Project cost of capital = 9%
Calculation of the Project`s NPV :
<em>NPV can be calculated from this summary using a financial calculator as :</em>
<em>CF0 = ($120,000)</em>
<em>CF1 = $18,900</em>
<em>Nj = 10</em>
<em>i = 9 %</em>
<em>NPV = ? </em>
<em>NPV = $1,293.73 or $1,294</em>
The Project is accepted only if it has a Positive NPV
Conclusion,
Chen should buy the new machine since it produces a positive NPV of $1,294.
Answer:
B) GNMAs are considered to be the riskiest of the agency issues
Explanation:
The Ginnie Mae or GNMA pass through securities are mortgage backed. The Great recession taught us that mortgage backed securities are not always 100% secure, but they are still considered secure investments basically because they are guaranteed by the US government. They are similar to the securities sold by the US Treasury.
Ginnie Mae basically guarantees mortgages using federal funds (from Federal Housing Administration and Department of Veterans Affairs).
Answer:
U-shaped
Explanation:
Since the marginal product of labor is decreasing, the average variable costs and marginal costs will be increasing at all points, but the average fixed costs will be decreasing. That is why the average total costs (which includes both variable and fixed costs per unit) will be U-shaped since they will fall at the beginning when the decrease in marginal product of labor is small, bu then will increase as the marginal product of labor falls even more.
Answer:
Current stock price = $24.23
Explanation:
Stock price under Discounted Model:
P0 = D1 \div(Ke - g)
P0 = Current Market price of the share
g = Growth rate = 5.0%
Ke = Cost of equity = 11.5% p.a
D1 = Expected dividend = $1.50 (1 + 0.05)= $1.575
P0 = $1.575 / (11.50% - 5.0%)
Current stock price = $24.23
Answer:
$24.18
Explanation:
Dividend for year 0 = $2.2
Dividend at year end 1 = $2.2
Dividend at year end 2 = $2.2(1 + .05) = 2.31
Dividend at year end 3 = $2.31 (1 + .05) = 2.4255
Dividend at year end 4 = $2.4255 (1 + .17)= 2.8378
Dividend at year end 5 = $2.8375 (1 + .09)= 3.0932
Dividend at year end 6 = $3.0932 (1 + .09) = 3.371
MPS = ![\frac{D_{1} }{(1\ +\ k)^{1} } + \frac{D_{2} }{(1\ +\ k)^{2} } \ +\ \frac{D_{3} }{(1\ +\ k)^{3} } \ +\ \frac{D_{4} }{(1\ +\ k)^{4} } +\ \frac{D_{5} }{(1\ +\ k)^{5} } \ + \frac{1}{(1\ +\ k)^{5} } [\frac{D_{6} }{(k\ -\ g)\ ]}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BD_%7B1%7D%20%7D%7B%281%5C%20%2B%5C%20k%29%5E%7B1%7D%20%7D%20%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7BD_%7B2%7D%20%7D%7B%281%5C%20%2B%5C%20k%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%5C%20%2B%5C%20%5Cfrac%7BD_%7B3%7D%20%7D%7B%281%5C%20%2B%5C%20k%29%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%20%5C%20%2B%5C%20%5Cfrac%7BD_%7B4%7D%20%7D%7B%281%5C%20%2B%5C%20k%29%5E%7B4%7D%20%7D%20%20%2B%5C%20%5Cfrac%7BD_%7B5%7D%20%7D%7B%281%5C%20%2B%5C%20k%29%5E%7B5%7D%20%7D%20%5C%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%5C%20%2B%5C%20k%29%5E%7B5%7D%20%7D%20%20%5B%5Cfrac%7BD_%7B6%7D%20%7D%7B%28k%5C%20-%5C%20g%29%5C%20%5D%7D)
where MPS = Market price of share
D= Dividend for different years
k = Cost of equity
g= constant growth rate after year 5
putting values in above equation we get,
MPS = 1.864 + 1.65 + 1.478 + 1.463 + 1.352 + 0.4371 × 37.462
MPS = $24.18
The maximum price per share that an investor who requires a return of 18% should pay for Home Place Hotels common stock is <u>$24.18</u>
