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Tju [1.3M]
3 years ago
9

Simplify x + x + y x y

Mathematics
2 answers:
Orlov [11]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

2x + 2y

Step-by-step explanation:

DedPeter [7]3 years ago
6 0
2x + 2y your welcome!
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In MON, J, K, and L are midpoints. If JL = 11, LK = 13, and ON = 20, and JL || MN, LK || MO, and JK || ON, what is the length of
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

The lengths of MN is 22 units, MO is 26 units and JK is 10 units

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>A l</em><em>ine segment</em><em> joining the </em><em>mid-points of two sides</em><em> in a triangle is </em><em>parallel to the third side</em><em> and </em><em>equal to half its length</em>

In Δ MON

∵ J, K, and L are mid-points

∵ JL // MN and LK // MO

∴ L is the mid-point of ON

∴ J is the mid-point of MO

∴ K is the mid-point of MN

∵ J, L are the mid-points of MO and ON

∵ JL is opposite to MN

→ By using the rule above

∴ JL = \frac{1}{2} MN

∵ JL = 11 units

∴ 11 = \frac{1}{2} MN

→ Multiply both sides by 2

∴ 22 = MN

∴ MN = 22 units

∵ K, L are the mid-points of MN and ON

∵ KL is opposite to MO

→ By using the rule above

∴ KL = \frac{1}{2} MO

∵ KL = 13 units

∴ 13 = \frac{1}{2} MO

→ Multiply both sides by 2

∴ 26 = MO

∴ MO = 26 units

∵ J, K are the mid-points of MO and MN

∵ JK is opposite to ON

→ By using the rule above

∴ JK = \frac{1}{2} ON

∵ ON =20 units

∴ JK = \frac{1}{2} (20)

∴ JK = 10 units

∴ The lengths of MN are 22 units, MO is 26 units and JK is 10 units

3 0
4 years ago
4. In this figure, B↔A↔
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

B. 25 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

i think

6 0
3 years ago
Haha once again I need the drawing
Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

hha once again i need the drawing

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Explain why rationalizing the denominator does not change the value of the original expression
anzhelika [568]
Rationalizing is just simpllifying, so the simplified value has the same value as the original expression.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If you only have a
cestrela7 [59]

Hi! I'm happy to help!

To solve this problem, we need to divide the recipe amount in 1/6 amounts. So, we will do a fraction division problem like this:

15\frac{1}{6}÷\frac{1}{6}

This problem is hard to do with mixed numbers, so we need to turn 15\frac{1}{6} into an improper fraction. To do that we need to multiply 15 by 6, because that is our denominator, then add the extra \frac{1}{6}.

(15×6)+1

90+1

91

So, our improper fraction would be\frac{91}{6}, now, let's solve.

\frac{91}{6}÷\frac{1}{6}

It is difficult to do division problems on their own, so we can change this into an easier problem. We can do the inverse operation and turn this into multiplication. We do this by changing it to multiplication (obviously), then flip the second fraction.

\frac{91}{6}×\frac{6}{1}

Now, we just multiply the top by the top, and bottom by the bottom.

\frac{546}{6}

We could end it here, but we want a whole number, so, we simplify the number by dividing both the top and bottom by 6.

\frac{91}{1}

Anything over 1, is just a whole number

91.

<u>Therefore, the recipe should require 91 uses of the 1/6 cup.</u>

I hope this was helpful, keep learning! :D

3 0
3 years ago
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