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Lunna [17]
3 years ago
9

52 cards what is the probability that a card drawn is a diamond

Mathematics
2 answers:
Leya [2.2K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Pobability is 0.25 or 25% chance of drawing diamonds

Step-by-step explanation:

52/4=13

13/52=0.25

irina [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1/4 or 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

there are four different suits in total in a card deck. There is an even amount of each one (Diamonds, Spades, Clubs, Hearts). Therefore, you have a 1 in four chance- or a 25% chance of drawing a diamond.

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In what way do bushes benefit from bears. eating their berries
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

They have spikes???

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The first three steps for solving the quadratic equation by completing the square are shown. Fill in the missing number in the l
gulaghasi [49]
Completing the square is done as follows:

1. Write the equation in a way that the constants are in the right side while the terms with x are on the left. 
<span>9x2 +54x = 7
</span>
2. Make sure that the coefficient of the x^2 term is 1.
<span>9(x2 + 6x) = 7
</span>
3. Adding a term to both sides that will complete the square in the left side. This is done by dividing the coefficient of the x term by 2 and squaring it. Note: The same amount should be added to the right side to balance the equation.
<span>9(x2 + 6x + 9) = 7 + 81

9(x+3)^2 = 88
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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Directions:Use the power rule to simplify the following monomials.
Rom4ik [11]

Step-by-step explanation:

Easy:)

7)4a^{8}b^{12} \\8)25x^{6}y^{8}\\9)x^{9}y^{9}×xy^{2}

=x^{10}y^{11}

10)a^{3}×a^{8}b^{4}

=a^{11}b^{4}

11)4a^{2}b^{4}×9a^{4}b^{2}

=36a^{6}b^{6}

Have a nice day! :)

-Vana

7 0
3 years ago
A TRIANGLE HAS SIDES WITH LENGTHS OF 4 meters, 5 meters,AND 7 meters.
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

I believe the answer is no

Step-by-step explanation:

Because they are all different numbers

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If fixed costs are $561,000 and the unit contribution margin is $8.00, what is the break-even point in units if variable costs a
olga nikolaevna [1]
The break even point is the point where in the total cost and the total revenue of the business are of the same value which means there is no profit or no loss. It is would be the minimum point that a business to reach in order to be able to recover the costs without any loss. At this point selling cost is equal to the sum of the fixed cost and the variable cost. To determine the break even point in units, we do as follows:

SC = FC + VC
Px = FC + Vx
where x is the number of units, P is the price per unit and V is the variable cost per unit.

x = FC / P - V
x = 561000 / (8.00 - 0.50)
x = 74800 units
4 0
3 years ago
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