Help me with that then I’m done

I will give a brainlist if someone could answer this problem with a explanation:)

egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The two base angles in each triangle are equal. (The triangle is isoceles and the property used is angles opposite equal sides are equal).

Now the tricky part. The peak angles are also equal. That's because both peak angles are made equal by Peak angle + 2*base angle = 180

Peak angle = 180 - 2*base angle

Therefore the triangles are congruent by SAS.

I suppose you could get them equal by taking one of the base angles (all 4 are equal to each other) and the peak angles and claim equality by ASA, but it seems a little bit tortuous to me.

5 0

3 years ago

$65 dress pants 20% discount

jeka57 [31]

20% of 65 = 65 * 1/5, which is 13. so 20% of 65 is $13. so a discount of 20% = 65-13 which is $52

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

200 is 1/100 of what number

jolli1 [7]

Answer:200000

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.08

kvv77 [185]

Answer:

a) 44.93% probability that there are no surface flaws in an auto's interior

b) 0.03% probability that none of the 10 cars has any surface flaws

c) 0.44% probability that at most 1 car has any surface flaws

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the Poisson and the binomial probability distributions.

Poisson distribution:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Binomial distribution:

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.08 flaws per square foot of plastic panel. Assume an automobile interior contains 10 square feet of plastic panel.

So $\mu = 10*0.08 = 0.8$

(a) What is the probability that there are no surface flaws in an auto's interior?

Single car, so Poisson distribution. This is P(X = 0).

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.8}*(0.8)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.4493$

44.93% probability that there are no surface flaws in an auto's interior

(b) If 10 cars are sold to a rental company, what is the probability that none of the 10 cars has any surface flaws?

For each car, there is a $p = 0.4493$ probability of having no surface flaws. 10 cars, so n = 10. This is P(X = 10), binomial, since there are multiple cars and each of them has the same probability of not having a surface defect.