Cost push inflation is caused due increase in cost of factor of production which leads to decrease in aggregate supply.
thus aggregate supply tend to shift leftward.
thus it is false
It should be noted that the statements which includes a line described as net income is income statement .
<h3>What is an income statement ?</h3>
An income statement can be regarded as the financial statement which display company's income and expenditures.
This statement can display how the company is performing, whether it's making profit or loss for a given period.
Learn more about income statement at:
brainly.com/question/1305349
Answer:
P₀ = $59.45
Explanation:
the numbers are missing so I looked for a similar question:
- expected EPS = $2.775
- retain 0% of earnings (years 1 - 2)
- retain 48% of earnings (years 3 - 4)
- then retain 23%
- expected return on new projects = 22.4%
- Re = 10.7%
growth rate = retention rate x return on new projects
g₁ = not given EPS₁ = $2.775
g₂ = 1 x 22.4% = 22.4% EPS₂ = $3.3966
g₃ = 1 x 22.4% = 22.4% EPS₃ = $4.1574
g₄ = 0.48 x 22.4% = 10.752% EPS₄ = $4.6044
g₅ = 0.48 x 22.4% = 10.752% EPS₅ = $5.0995
g₆ = 0.23 x 22.4% = 5.152% EPS₆ = $5.3622
dividend payout ratio expected dividend
year 1 = 0 $0
year 2 = 0 $0
year 3 = 0.52 $2.1618
year 4 = 0.52 $2.3943
year 5 = 0.77 $3.9266
year 6 = 0.77 $4.1289
since the growth rate became constant at year 6, we can find the terminal value for year 5:
terminal value year 5 = $4.1289 / (10.7 - 5.152%) = $74.4214
P₀ = $0/1.07 + $0/1.07² + $2.1618/1.07³ + $2.3943/1.07⁴ + $3.9266/1.07⁵ + $74.4214/1.07⁵ = $0 + $0 + $1.7647 + $1.8266 + $2.7996 + $53.0614 = $59.45
Answer:
B) $1,187.50
Explanation:
The computation of the total profit or loss on this investment is given below:
Expiration price = 1061'4 = 1061 + 4 ÷ 8 = 1061.50
Quoted price = 1056'6 = 1056 + 6 ÷ 8 = 1056.75
Now the profit is
= (1061.50 - 1056.75) × 5000 × 5
= $1,187.50
Hence, the profit on this investment is $1,187.50
