<span> I know France in particular had a hard time securing coal, which is one of the reasons they would come to exploit Germany so badly after the first World War. I also know that Britain made the export of textile machinery illegal until the mid 1840s. Regarding feudal agriculture, well, well landlords of France certainly treated the peasants as serfs well into the 18th c., which led of course to the French Revolution.</span>
In short- no. He imposed some very unfair tariffs on the southern states, making it very hard to live, most of what he did were things that lead up to the civil war. But in this case, I suggest you do your research and do the essay, but I can tell you what he did. He inposed unfair tariffs on forgein goods, making them the same (expensive) prices on domestic goods, made in the north. In retaliation, South Carolina seceded, and used military action against them. He also made the federal reserve a thing I think.
Answer:
To pay reparations after World War I, Germany printed more money.
Explanation:
After the end of World War I in November 1918, France and Great Britain imposed on the defeated Germany the payment of war reparations for the destruction caused during the conflict.
The German government issued paper money to pay the reparations of war, calling Papiermark to these new issues. Due to the emergencies arising from the conflict, the Papiermark lacked of gold backing and was not convertible into this precious metal, which was an unusual situation for the time, where the gold standard scheme required all the paper money issues of a country were backed by gold, precisely to guarantee its value. As a result of this situation, Germany entered into a period of hyperinflation.
