Answer:
net cash from operating activities = $0
Explanation:
given data
net income = $70,000
dividend payment = $10,000
Mortgage repayment = $20,000
Available-for-sale securities purchased = 10,000 increase
Bonds payable = 50,000 increase
Inventory = 40,000 increase
Accounts payable = 30,000 decrease
solution
we get here net cash from operating activities that is express as
net cash from operating activities = net income - inventory increase - accounts payable decrease .......................1
put here value
net cash from operating activities = $70,000 - $40,000 - $30,000
net cash from operating activities = $0
because
- Dividend payments, repayment (mortgage) and debt issuance (bond) financing activities. The purchase of debt or equity instruments (securities available for sale) is an investment activity.
- Operating Cash Flow Investing cash flow excludes this financing. Further, these factors do not affect net income. Consequently, net cash provided by operating activities can be determined by adjusting net income payable in inventory and accounts.
- To differentiate between the cost of goods sold (deducted from income) and cash payments to suppliers, a two-step adjustment is required. The change in inventory is the difference between the prices of goods sold and purchased.
- The difference between the amount payable to buyers and suppliers is the change in accounts payable. Accordingly, an increase in inventories and a reduction in accounts payable is required to change the cost of goods sold to cash paid to suppliers.
Answer:
the company should buy and install the press because the NPV of the project is positive ($73,133.75)
Explanation:
the MACRS 5 year depreciation:
- $375,000 x 20% = $75,000
- $375,000 x 32% = $120,000
- $375,000 x 19.2% = $72,000
- $375,000 x 11.52% = $43,200
- $19,800, since salvage value at year 5 is $45,000
- $0 x 5.76% = $0
salvage value $45,000
total initial investment = $375,000, discount rate = 11%
- cash flow year 1 = {($142,000 - $15,000 - $75,000) x (1 - 34%)} + $75,000 = $109,320
- cash flow year 2 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $120,000) x (1 - 34%)} + $120,000 = $133,200
- cash flow year 3 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $72,000) x (1 - 34%)} + $72,000 = $116,880
- cash flow year 4 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $43,200) x (1 - 34%)} + $43,200 = $107,088
- cash flow year 5 = {($142,000 - $2,000 - $19,800) x (1 - 34%)} + $19,800 + $45,000 = $144,132
the NPV of the project = -$375,000 + $109,320/1.11 + $133,200/1.11² + $116,880/1.11³ + $107,088/1.11⁴ + $144,132/1.11⁵ = $73,133.75
If 97% came from domestic sources then 3% came from foreign sources. This means that $450,000 is 3/100 of the total amount. You need to divide 450,000 by 3 to get 1/100 (1%) of the total amount, then multiply that number by 100 to give you the sum of 100/100 (100%) of the company's revenues:
450,000/3=150,000×100= $15,000,000
So, the company made $15,000,000 last year
Answer:
Predetermined overhead rate for department A = 1.4
Predetermined overhead rate for department B = $4
Explanation:
The computation of predetermined overhead rates would be used in Dept A and Dept B, is shown below:-
The predetermined overhead rate for department A = Manufacturing overhead ÷ Machine hours
= $91,000 ÷ $65,000
= 1.4
The predetermined overhead rate for department B = Manufacturing overhead ÷ Machine hours
= $48,000 ÷ 12,000 hours
= $4
So, we have applied the above formula.
Answer:
Resources Mobilization Theory
Explanation:
It is theory of social movements that argues success movements gain traction by acquiring and successfully using resources to their advantage to achieve their goals.
