Answer:
Please see attached solution
Explanation:
a. Total manufacturing overhead costs allocated $356,400
b. Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance $40,500U
c. Fixed manufacturing overhead spending variance $17,600U
d. Variable manufacturing overhead efficiency variance $19,500F
e. Production volume variance $39,200F
Please find attached detailed solution to the above questions
Answer: 204.76%
Explanation:
In the earlier scenario, furniture maker manufactured 47 (42 non defective) pieces per 5 laborers working 8 hours day.
Thus, the productivity in terms of units per labor hour is as follows:
= 1.05
Similarly, after the process improvement, the productivity in units per labor hour would be:
= 3.2
Thus change in productivity would be calculated as:
= 2.047 × 100
= 204.76%
Thus, the productivity of non defective parts would increase by 204.76%.
Answer and Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-
1) Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) for this economy is 0.75 as it denotes the spending of the household and saving of 0.25 and the spending multiplier for this economy is
= Spending Multiplier(M)
= 1 ÷ 1 - MPC
= 1 ÷ 1-0.75
= 1 ÷ 0.25
= 4
2). Decrease in government purchases will lead to a decrease in income, generating an initial change in consumption
= -Amount of Government Decrease Purchases by × MPC
= -$250 billion × 0.75
= -$187.5 billion
3). Decrease income again, causing a second change in consumption
= Amount Decrease in Government Purchases × MPC
= -$187.5 billion × 0.75
= $140.6 billion
4).Total change in demand resulting from the initial change in government spending
= Amount of Government Decrease Purchases by × Spending Multiplier(M)
= $250 × 4
= $1,000 billion
= $1 trillion
As we can see that the income falls by $1000 billion in the end, so AD shifts to the left by the size of $1 trillion
In the question the graph is missing. Kindly find the attachment for both of question and answer
