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postnew [5]
2 years ago
11

Your business partner describes this as a high positive correlation. Is your partner correct? Why or why not? (2 points)

Business
2 answers:
Nina [5.8K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The trend line lies on the points (0,100) and (15,900)

Explanation:

Alex Ar [27]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the trend line is on the points  (0,100) and (15,900) on the graph : )

Explanation:

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On December 29, 2005, BJ Co. sold an equity security investment that had been purchased on January 4, 2004. BJ owned no other ma
sineoko [7]

Answer:

AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery

No No

The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.

The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.

The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.

For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Anthony currently earns $25 an hour and works 40 hours a week. When his boss offers to pay him $29 per hour, Anthony decides to
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

substitution and income effects will counteract each other totally

Explanation:

A labor supply curve is an economic analysis tool that shows the number or workers that are available to work or that can work at various wage rates.

The labor supply curve can either be bending backwards or sloping downwards or upward curving but it shows the relationship between labour and wage rates.

A labor supply curve can be affected by factors such as population, changes in social behaviour, opportunities in other markets, among other things.

From the above question, it is seen that a change in wage rate for Anthony from $25 to $29 does not affect his work hours positively of negatively. His work hours is the same despite the increase in hourly wage.

The effect of the Anthony sticking to 40 hours of work despite an increase in wage, which could have served as some motivation for him to put in more hours is his labor curve remains same. An increase in wage has done noting to affect the number of hours he works and as such his income vs work rate counters each other.

Cheers.

8 0
3 years ago
Why would a business ower lower the price of a product
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

he would do so becaus the canadiens wer smugling syrup and it was making trhe price go yeet, so ppl who didnt sell at thaat price had to lower or go ot of business!1

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the typical relationship between time and interest rate?
melamori03 [73]
<span>Time and interest rates are directly related to one another. When paying a loan that accures interest, the longer it takes for you to pay the loan back, the more interest you are going to pay on that loan. Over time, the interest adds up and can be a large sum of money, if you want to pay a lower amount of interest, it is often beneficial to pay off the loan in a quicker amount of time. </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At a local Bed and Bath Superstore, the manager, Jill Roe, knows her customers will pay no more than $230 for a bedspread. Jill
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

$164.29

Explanation:

The formula to compute the markup percentage is shown below:

Markup percentage = (Sale price - purchase price) ÷ (purchase price)

where,

Markup percentage is 40%

Sale price is $230

So, the purchase price is

0.40 = ($230 - purchase price) ÷ (purchase price)

0.40 × purchase price = $230 - purchase price

So, the purchase price is

= $230 ÷ 1.40

= $164.29

           

5 0
3 years ago
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