Complete Question:
The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to
a. government control of the market.
b. market forces working through the price mechanism.
c. the money supply that serves to keep the economy working smoothly.
d. the role of innovation in maintaining a steady rate of growth.
e. "behind-the-scenes" policy making to influence how markets allocate scarce resources.
Answer:
The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to Market forces working through the price mechanism.
Explanation:
The invisible hand is the in observable market force, which helps demand and delivers goods automatically to balance in a free market.
Description: In his book ' The Wealth of Nations ' Adam Smith implemented the phrase of the invisible hand.
An invisible hand that defines the processes through which favorable social and economic effects that emerge out of the self-interested behaviors obtained by individuals, who have no intention of producing such results. The term developed by the eighteenth-century British philosopher and economist Adam Smith.
Answer:
Authorizing the team to make decisions traditionally made by managers.
Explanation:
That gives them a sense of leadership and knowing that certain ideas and contributions they make will eventually be valid. It fuels their energy to do more and that helps the company grow which is what the management looks out for.
Answer:
Total FICA tax is $ 9792+ $ 823.60= $ 10,615.6
Explanation:
The FICA tax is 7.65% for employees wages upto 128,000 and 1.45 % in excess of $ 128,000
Suppose the FICA tax rate is 7.65 % and her monthly salary is $ 7,700*2= $15,400
Her yearly salary is $15,400* 12= $ 184,800 which is above $ 128,000
So the Fica Tax would be = 128,000 * 7.65%= $ 9792
And 1.45 % 0f (184,800- 128,00)$ 56,800= $ 823.60
Total FICA tax is $ 9792+ $ 823.60= $ 10,615.6
Answer:
the present value is $13,588.97
Explanation:
The computation of the present value of the retreading operation is shown below:
As we know that
Present value = Future value ÷ (1 + rate of interest)^time period
= $2,700 ÷ 1.09^1 + $2,700 ÷ 1.09^2 + $2,700 ÷ 1.09^3 + $2,700 ÷ 1.09^4 + $2,700 ÷ 1.09^5 + $2,700 ÷ 1.09^6 + $2,700 ÷ 1.09^7
= $13,588.97
Hence, the present value is $13,588.97
Answer:
aftertax cost of debt =5.63%
Explanation:
fisrt we need to know the formula for the yield to maturity
Yield to maturity (YTM)
YTM= ( I+(F-P)/n ) / ( 0.6P +0.4F)
YTM= (9 + ( 100-102.3) / 11 ) / (0.6*102.3 + 0.4*100)
YTM= 0.0867
YTM= 8.67%
after taxes we have...
8.67% (1-0.35%)
=0.0563
=5.63%
