Answer:
a. The portfolio weights that remove all risk is 50%
.
b. The risk-free rate of interest in this economy is 13.5%
Explanation:
The formula for standard deviation of a portfolio, of which i cannot type:
a. If we let sigma p = std. deviation of portfolio
rho 1,2 = correlation
if sigma = 0 and rho = -1, then the first equation can be re-written as :
0 = w1^2 * s1^2 + w2^2 * s2^2 + 2 * w1 * w2 * s1 * s2 * -1
0 = (w1s1 - w2s2)^2
w1s1 = w2s2
w1 * 0.03 = w2 * 0.03
w1 = w2 = 50%
Therefore, The portfolio weights that remove all risk is 50%
.
b. Expected return of the portfolio = 0.5*20% + 0.5*7%
= 13.5%
This portfolio has zero risk, risk free rate = 13.5%
Therefore, The risk-free rate of interest in this economy is 13.5%
Answer: A young lawyer who just finished work on a multimillion -dollar development deal downtown is hired by an economic development firm in lieu of an older lawyer who works on litigation
This is not a case of discriminating against a person because of age, as we can see the young lawyer is better suited for a job in economic development as he already has worked on a development deal, where as the older lawyer is a litigator
A large retail outlet hires an 80-year-old woman to greet customers instead of a 30-year-old woman who has been greeting customers in other stores for a decade
This may be a case of age discrimination, because the 30 year old seems to be the better candidate, because she has experience in this work and will be more energetic than the 80 year old as well
The owner of a local, hip smoothie bar in a university town just fired a graduate student who had worked at the bar for three years and instead hired a college sophomore.
This may be a case of age discrimination because the employer is firing a graduate who has had 3 years of experience and hiring someone who hasn't graduated and has no experience
Explanation:
Answer:
Find answers below.
Explanation:
Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.
Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.
The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.
Answer: Costs of units started and completed: you will take the equivalent units calculated for units started and completed x the cost per equivalent unit for materials, labor and overhead (or conversion). The sum of these 3 will be the cost of units completed and transferred which is also known as cost of goods manufactured
Explanation:
