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Lemur [1.5K]
2 years ago
10

Elizabeth recently purchased 115 shares of a company for $10350 ($90 per share). The company has been doing well. This year, she

received a dividend of $1035. Given the success of the company, her shares are now worth $270 each. What is Elizabeth’s per share basis in the company?
Business
1 answer:
Fed [463]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$90

Explanation:

Option B is wrong because $1,035 is the dividend received from the company by Elizabeth.

Option C is wrong because $270 is the current market price of each share.

Option D is incorrect because $10,350 is the common stock value of 115 shares.

Option A is correct because $90 is Elizabeth's per-share basis in the company for which she received a dividend. Share's price increased to $270 after success.

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Typically banks rely on other banks to lend reserves to one another. Which interest rate do they charge for these loans
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

Federal funds rate

Explanation:

federal funds rate is simply known as the interest rate at which depository financial institutions borrows(lends) funds maintained at the federal reserve to other depository financial institutions usually or Maybe overnight.

It is simply the interest rate that one bank charges another for borrowing money overnight. Its importance is to help banks meet their reserve requirements and prevent bank failure and also may be use to stimulate the economy.

5 0
3 years ago
Brenda has recently been denied a promotion. This is the third time she was turned down for promotion despite excellent performa
Serggg [28]

Answer: The options are given below:

A. a diversity-oriented employer

B. a wide span of control

C. the glass ceiling effect

D. the black swan effect

E. an affirmative action

The correct option is C. The Glass Ceiling Effect

Explanation: The glass ceiling is a term used in organizations, it is a metaphor that is used to refer to an invisible and artificial barrier that prevents women and minority groups from being promoted to top managerial and executive level positions within an organization.

The scenario presented above is a perfect example of the glass ceiling effect, this is because, though Brenda is qualified for the promotion, she is denied it regardless, because "that's just the way things are". As you can see, the reason for the denial of her promotion is not a professional issue, just a tradition to always suppress the advancement of certain categories of people.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
As the required skills sets are basically the same between workers and all levels of managers, a carefully designed set of inter
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": True.

Explanation:

<em>Recruitment evaluations</em> are typically designed to gauge the skills, knowledge, and expertise of applicants. Most of the time, they are created considering the different types of tasks employees have within the organization and their hierarchy in the firm.  

However, <em>if those evaluations are schemed to require the same set of skills for managers and lower hierarchy employees, the tests are likely to help evaluate applicants for different positions under the same parameters.</em>

8 0
3 years ago
On june 30, 20x1, after paying the semiannual interest due and recording amortization of bond discount, hake redeemed its 15-yea
Leokris [45]

Amount of interest expense on 30th June 20X1= Carrying Amount of Bond*Effective Interest Rate (For 6 Months)

=$940000*5/100

=$47000

Contractual Interest of the bond=Face Value*Contractual Interest

=1000000*4/100

=$40000

Thus, Carrying Amount of Bond=Carrying Amount|+Interest Expense-Interest Paid

Carrying Amount as on 30th June=940000+47000-40000

Carrying amount as on 30th June=$947000

Amount Paid to Redeem Bonds =$1020000

Gain/(Loss) on Redemtion of Bonds=Face Value-Amount Paid to Redeem Bonds

Loss on Bonds=-$73000

6 0
3 years ago
The following situations should be considered independently. (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $
taurus [48]

Answer:

Explanation:

(1)

FV = PV x (1 + r)^N  

FV = $75,000

PV = $35,000

r = 8%

75,000 = 35,000 x (1.08)^N

(1.08)N = 2.1429

N ln 1.08 = ln 2.1429

N = ln 2.1429 / ln 1.08 = 0.33 / 0.033 = 10 years

(2)

FV = Annual payment, A x PVA

FV = $43,700

n = 6 years

A = 8,000

43,700 = 8,000 x PVA

PVA = 5.4625

PVIFA (6 years, r%) = 5.4172

r=3%.

(3)

PV = Annual payment, A x PVIFA (r%, n years)

PV = $18,000

n = 6 years

r = 9%

$18,000 = A x PVIFA (9%, 6 years) = A x 4.4859 [From PVIFA table]

A = $18,000 / 4.4859 = $4,012.57

4 0
3 years ago
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