Step-by-step explanation:
1/2 represents every fraction, where the denominator (bottom part) is twice the numerator (top part).
like 4/8 or 6/12 or 128/256 or ...
what do we need in the denominator to calculate with 15/16 ?
the same : 16.
and what is half of 16 ? 8.
so, we need the 1/2 based on 16th = 8/16.
so, the dog ate 8/16 (1/2) of the original 15/16.
what was left was
15/16 - 8/16 = 7/16 pound
X = 7 / sin(45)
x = 7 / sqrt(2)/2
x = 7 sqrt(2)
Assuming the interest is simple interest, as opposed to compound interest,
Answer:
3x + 2
Step-by-step explanation:
6x + 1 - (3x-1) < distribute the negative sign into the expression
6x + 1 -3x + 1 < combine like terms
6x - 3x = 3x
1 + 1 = 2
our simplified expression is:
3x + 2
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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