Answer with Step-by-step explanation:
Let A is non-singular

We have to prove that
is unique.
Suppose B and C are inverse of A such that
and AC=I
By using property 




Hence, the inverse of A is unique.
The answer is 3 :) hope this is right
Yeah bro just take the 2 and subtract on both side so the y is left alone flip the 100 so now its 001 divide it by 1 and the answer is 007 like the spy.
Answer:
She is not breaking even. The discounted price is .84t, which is less than t.
Step-by-step explanation:
Retail price= 1.4
1.4×.4= .56
40% of 1.4 is .56
Subtract 40% of 1.4 from the retail price because she is marking down.
(1.4)-(.56)=.84
So the discounted price is .84t
This problem is difficult because we don't know if she sold any tea by the retail price and if she did how much did she sell.
First of all, if you look at the question, you will notice that the two numbers involved are the same (that is; 4 and 4). However, there are two ways to solve this. But the easiest way is by using indices. In indices, whenever you are multiplying two numbers that are the same, the powers are added. And whenever you are dividing two numbers that are the same, the powers are subtracted. This is due to the fact that in indices, addition is related to multiplication and subtraction is related to division. An example is;
A⁵ × A³ = A⁽⁵⁺³⁾ =A⁸
A⁵ ÷ A³ = A⁽⁵⁻³⁾ =A²
Anyway, over to the question now;
4⁹÷4³
4⁽⁹⁻³⁾
4⁽⁶⁾
Therefore; 4×4×4×4×4×4=4096
So the answer is 4096. However, if you calculate 4⁹÷4³ on a calculator, you will still get 4096. Hope i helped. Have a nice day