Ok so
-10, -6
4,-6
-3,-13
-3,1
should be it
Answer:
option (a) It will be closer to 30 than to 20
Step-by-step explanation:
Data provided in the question:
For sample 1:
n₁ = 10
variance, s₁² = 20
For sample 2:
n₂ = 15
variance, s₂² = 30
Now,
The pooled variance is calculated using the formula,
on substituting the given respective values, we get
or
= 26.0869
Hence,
the pooled variance will be closer to 30 than to 20
Therefore,
The correct answer is option (a) It will be closer to 30 than to 20
R=10
because 10 divided by ten =1 +4 =5
Answer:
160/196
Step-by-step explanation:
it would be easier if you converted all fractions to improper fractions
so 3 1/5 would equal 16/5 and 2 4/5 would equal to 14/5
: to solve this you would need the same common denomenator,
to do this you can multiply 5 and 3 by something to make the lowest common denominator, which would be 15
thus
multiplying first fraction by 3 and the second by 5
42/15 - 10/15 = 32/15
now 32/15 divided by 14/5
the rule for dividing fractions, is flipping the fraction which you will be using to divide, and then multiplying it to the first fraction:
multiplied by
thus, answer is 160/196
Answer:
Option a)
Step-by-step explanation:
The given formula seems to represent the volume of right circular cone. The correct formula is:
We have to rearrange the formula for h. This means we have to move h on one side of the formula and all the other variables and constants on the other side of the equation. This can be done as shown below: