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Ymorist [56]
3 years ago
10

{y=3/4x 5/2x+2y=5 need help

Mathematics
1 answer:
boyakko [2]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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1) A research team is planning to use an ice drill at the top of a glacier. The team plans to use the drill for 10 hours each da
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

Answer is 50 trust me

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Ms. Reynold's sprinkler system has 5 stations that water all parts of her front and back lawn. Each station runs for an equal am
mina [271]

Answer: 40 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

It takes 16 minutes for the first 2 stations to water their sections which means that the time taken per station is:

= 16/2

= 8 minutes per station

Ms. Reynolds has 5 stations.

Total time taken will therefore be:

= 8 * 5

= 40 minutes

3 0
3 years ago
PLEASE ANSWER AND HELP
ra1l [238]
She must save $91.80.
7 0
3 years ago
Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

4 0
3 years ago
Use the functions to find x
suter [353]

Answer:

x = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 10 -  \frac{9}{2} x \\  \\ plug \: f(x) =  - 53 \\  \\  - 53 = 10 -  \frac{9}{2} x \\  \\ \frac{9}{2} x  = 10 + 53 \\  \\ \frac{9}{2} x  = 63 \\  \\ x = 63 \times  \frac{2}{9}  \\  \\ x = 7 \times 2 \\  \\ x = 14

5 0
3 years ago
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