C the bank will exchange his new car for a old one
The equation would be 40+15p=70+5p. You would subtract 5p from each side (15-5) and (5-5) and you'll have 40+10p=70. You would then subtract 40 from each side (70-40) and (40-40) to have 10p=30. You would divide by both of the sides by 10, you would end up with p=3. P is price training. The reason you divide and subtract on both sides is because you want the months to be on one side and the price training on the other side.
Answer:
b
Step-by-step explanation:
he he UK dhdbsbueheh eve
Answer:
y = 3/2*x - 5
Step-by-step explanation:
Lets say that P1=(6,4) and P2=(4,1) and that the form of the equation must be y=m*x+b where m is the slope and b the independent variable. Then having two given points we can use the slope formula to find the slope value as:
P1=(x1,y1) and P2=(x2,y2)
slope formula ---> m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
Replacing the given points ---> m=(1-4)/(4-6) = 3/2
then replacing the slope value obtained:
y = 3/2*x + b
Now lets find the value of b. For this we have to replace in the equation a point it can be P1 or P2, i will replace P2:
1 = 3/2*4 + b
1 = 6 + b
1 - 6 = b
-5 = b
therefore the line equation is:
y = 3/2*x - 5
The correct answer for the question shown above is: Geodesic.
The explanation of is shown below:
1. You have that ,by definition, the spherical geometry studies figures on the surface of the spheres.
2. And the termn known as "Geodesic" is define as <span>the shortest distance between two points on the surface of a sphere or a curved surface. </span>